06 OCTOBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which of the statements are correct regarding Index of Industrial Production and Purchasing
Managers Index?

1. Index of Industrial Production covers the broader industrial sector compared to Purchasing
   Managers Index.
2. Index of Industrial Production is more dynamic than Purchasing Managers Index.
   Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   Statement 2 is not correct.
   Difference between PMI and IIP
   IIP covers the broader industrial sector compared to PMI.
   IIP shows the change in production volume in major industrial sub sectors like manufacturing,
   mining and electricity.
   Similarly, the IIP also gives use based (capital goods, consumer goods etc) trends in industrial
   production.
   PMI is more dynamic compared to a standard industrial production index.
   The PMI senses dynamic trends because of the variable it uses for the construction of the index
   compared to volume-based production indicators like the IIP.
   For example, new orders under PMI show growth oriented positive trends and not just volume of
   past production that can be traced in an ordinary Index of Industrial Production.
   Q2. Which of the following are correctly matched?
   Anti-Missile Systems Origin
3. Iron Dome Israel
4. THAAD South Korea
5. S-400 Russia
6. Ground-Based Midcourse Defense United States of America
   Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1,2 and 4 only
   d) 1,3 and 4
   Solution: d)
   Explanation:
   THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense)- USA
   S-400- Russia
   Iron Dome- Israel
   Ground-Based Midcourse Defense-USA
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   Q3. Suppose, GST Council wants to decrease the tax on Oxygen Cylinders which is taxed at 12%. If
   the Council wants to bring it in 5% category, the resolution should be passed bya) Not less than 1/3rd of members present and voting
   b) Not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting
   c) Not less than 3/4th of members present and voting
   d) Not less than 1/2nd of members of strength of GST council
   Solution: c)
   Explanation:
   GST Council
    It is a constitutional body under Article 279A. It makes recommendations to the Union and
   State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the
   Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
    The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union
   State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all
   the States.
    It is considered as a federal body where both the centre and the states get due
   representation.
    Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting by a
   majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and
   voting, in accordance with the following principles, namely:
    the vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one third of the total votes
   cast, and
    the votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds
   of the total votes cast, in that meeting.
   Q4. With reference to Co-Win App (also called Covid Vaccine Intelligence Network), consider the
   following statements1. It is a cloud-based IT platform, is supposed to handle minute details for India’s Covid-19
   immunisation programme, including registering beneficiaries, allocating vaccination centres,
   sending text messages with name of their vaccinator to beneficiaries and live monitoring of
   vials in cold storage.
7. It is owned by Ministry of Electronics and IT.
8. Earlier, this platform was used for Pulse Polio Program.
   Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 2 only
   d) 1 and 2 only
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 2 is not correct.
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    Recently, the software of Co-WIN App (also called Covid Vaccine Intelligence Network) was
   upgraded to improve monitoring and managing of the ongoing Covid-19 Vaccination
   programme.
    Co-WIN, a cloud-based IT platform, is supposed to handle minute details for India’s Covid19 immunisation programme, including registering beneficiaries, allocating vaccination
   centres, sending text messages with name of their vaccinator to beneficiaries and live
   monitoring of vials in cold storage.
   Agencies Involved:
    The Co-WIN platform is owned by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and was earlier
   the platform used for conducting Pulse Polio and other crucial immunisation programmes
   across the country.
    The same platform has been expanded for doling out Covid-19 vaccines and the Ministry
   of Electronics and IT along with the National Informatics Centre are handling the backend
   and the tech infrastructure for it.
   Features:
    Monitoring and tracking: This app enable monitoring the inoculation drive and tracking
   the listed beneficiaries for vaccination on a real-time basis.
    Thus, it also helps to counter proxy vaccinations.
    Aadhaar enabled: This app would enable beneficiaries to be identified efficiently through
   use of Aadhaar platform.
   Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Arbitration Council of India1. It is a set of grading for grading arbitral institutions and accreditation of distributors.
9. It will be headed by chairperson, who has been judge of supreme court or chief justice of
   high court or an eminent person chaired by central government.
   Which of the statements are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: c)
   Explanation:
   Both the statements are correct.
   Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act 2019 seeks for the establishment and incorporation
   of an independent body namely,
   Arbitration Council of India (ACI)
   • ACI is set for grading of arbitral institutions and accreditation of arbitrators.
   • ACI will be headed by a Chairperson, who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice
   or Judge of a High Court or an eminent person appointed by central government in consultation
   with the Chief Justice of India.
   Q6. With reference to Electoral Bonds, consider the following statements1. Donor’s name is mentioned on bearer bond.
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10. It can be bought from any public sector bank.
    Which of the statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are not correct.
    Electoral Bond
     Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties.
     The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1
    crore without any maximum limit.
     State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for
    fifteen days from the date of issuance.
     These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
     The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or
    incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January,
    April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
     A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
     Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.
    Q7. Which of the following statements are not correct regarding World Intellectual Property
    Organisation?
11. It was created in 1967 to encourage creativity and to promote protection of IP.
12. It administers more than 20 treaties.
13. It is one of the United Nations oldest specialized agency.
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 2 and 3 only
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    All statements are correct.
    World Intellectual Property Organisation
     It is one of the oldest specialised agencies of the United Nations.
     It was created in 1967 to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of IP
    throughout the world.
     It currently administers 26 international treaties. Some of the major treaties are:
     Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the
    Purposes of Patent Procedure.
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     Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
     Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.
     Protocol Relating to the Madrid Agreement Concerning the International Registration of
    Marks- Madrid Protocol.
     Washington Treaty on IP in respect of Integrated Circuits.
     Nairobi Treaty on the Protection of the Olympic Symbol.
     Marrakesh Treaty to facilitate Access to Published Works by Visually Impaired Persons and
    Persons with Print Disabilities.
    Q8. Which of the following laws in India governs Intellectual Property?
14. Copyrights Act, 1957
15. Designs Act, 2000
16. IT Act, 2000
17. Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000.
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 4 only
    c) 2, 3 and 4
    d) All of the above
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Indian Laws which Cover Intellectual Property
     Trade Marks Act, 1999.
     Patents Act, 1970 (as amended in 2005).
     Copyright Act, 1957.
     Designs Act, 2000.
     Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
     Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000.
     Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Right Act, 2001.
     Information Technology Act, 2000.
    Q9. Which of the following states are involved in dispute of Cauvery River?
18. Tamil Nadu
19. Karnataka
20. Kerala
21. Puducherry
22. Andhra Pradesh
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1,2 and 4 only
    b) 2,3 and 5 only
    c) 1,2,3 and 4 only
    d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
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    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Cauvery Water Dispute:
    It involves 3 states and one Union Territory (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Puducherry).
    The genesis of the dispute is 150 years old and dates back to the two agreements of arbitration in
    1892 and 1924 between the then Madras presidency and Mysore.
    It entailed the principle that the upper riparian state must obtain consent of lower riparian state for
    any construction activity viz. reservoir on the river Cauvery.
    Recent Developments:
    From 1974, Karnataka started diverting water into its four newly made reservoirs, without the
    consent of Tamil Nadu resulting in a dispute.
    To resolve the matter, the CWDT (Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal) was established in 1990 which
    took 17 years to arrive at the final order (2007) on how Cauvery water should be shared between
    the 4 riparian states in normal rainfall conditions.
    CWDT was constituted by the Central Government, in exercise of the powers conferred by section
    4 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
    In distress years, a pro-rata basis shall be used, it instructed. The government again took 6 year and
    notified the order in 2013.
    This was challenged in SC (Supreme Court) which directed Karnataka to release 12000 cusecs of
    water to Tamil Nadu prompting protests in the State.
    The final verdict of the SC came in 2018 where it declared the Cauvery a national asset and largely
    upheld the water-sharing arrangements finalised by the CWDT and also reduced the allocation of
    water from Karnataka to Tamil Nadu.
    As per the SC, Karnataka would get 284.75 thousand million cubic feet (tmcft), Tamil Nadu 404.25
    tmcft, Kerala 30 tmcft and Puducherry 7 tmcft.
    It also directed the Centre to notify the Cauvery Management Scheme. The central government
    notified the ‘Cauvery Water Management Scheme’ in June 2018, constituting the ‘Cauvery Water
    Management Authority’ and the ‘Cauvery Water Regulation Committee’ to give effect to the
    decision.
    Q10. Which of the following are correctly matched?
    Places in News Associated States
23. Bharamaputra TunnelMizoram and Meghalaya
24. Kopili Fault Zone Assam
25. Hollongi Arunachal Pradesh
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1,2 and 3
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1 and 2 only
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Item 1 is not correctly matched.
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    Kopili Fault Zone
     The Kopili Fault Zone closer to Himalayan Frontal Thrust in Assam recently witnessed a
    powerful earthquake.
     The Kopili fault zone is a 300 km long and 50 km wide lineament (linear feature) extending
    from the western part of Manipur up to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and
    Assam.
     The area is seismically very active, falling in the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V associated
    with collisional tectonics where Indian plate subducts beneath the Eurasian Plate.
    Hollongi
     Airports Authority of India (AAI) planned to develop a greenfield airport at Hollongi.
     Hollongi is located in Arunachal Pradesh. It lies south of the state capital Itanagar.
     This airport, when operational, will service Arunachal Pradesh’s capital Itanagar. The closest
    airport to the state capital is currently Lilabari airport in Assam, situated 80 kilometres away.
    Brahmaputra Tunnel
     The Central government has given in-principle approval for the construction of an
    underwater tunnel in the Brahmaputra river in Assam.
     The tunnel will connect Gohpur (NH-54) with Numaligarh (NH-37) in Assam.
     The tunnel will be of strategic importance as it will provide round the year connectivity
    between the North-Eastern states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
     The National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHAIDCL) has
    roped in the US-based firm Louis Berger for the same.