22 JUNE CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which of them are correctly matched?
Military Exercises Countries

1. SAMPRITI India and Bangladesh
2. SLINEX India and Sri Lanka
3. Yudh Abhyas India and USA
   Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Explanation:
All of them are correctly matched.

Q2. Consider the following statement regarding Jal Jeevan
Mission (Urban). Which of the following statements
are not correct?

1. It is announced and administered by the Department
   of Drinking and Water Sanitation under the Ministry
   of Jal Shakti.
2. The funding for the mission will be divided between
   states and Centre uniformly in all states and Union
   Territories.
3. Public-Private Partnership Model is mandatory for
   those cities with a population of more than 1 Million.
   Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) was announced by the Ministry
of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Union Budget 2021-

22. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Funding: 100?ntral funding for Union Territories, 90%
    for North Eastern and Hill States, 50% for cities with less
    than 1 lakh population, one third for cities with 1 lakh to
    10 lakh population and 25% for cities with million plus
    population.
    Promoting PPP Model: Mandatory for cities having millions
    plus population to take up PPP projects worth a minimum
    of 10% of their total project fund allocation. Hence,
    statement 2 is not correct and 3 is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Belt and

Road Initiative-

1. It was launched by China in 2013.
2. The plan is two-pronged: the overland Silk Road
   Economic Belt and the Maritime Silk Road.
3. No member of Group of 7 (G-7) has joined the Belt
   and Road Initiative yet.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 3 only
   d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: d)

Explanation:
 The Belt and Road Initiative, reminiscent of the Silk
Road, is a massive infrastructure project that would
stretch from East Asia to Europe.
 It was launched in 2013.
 The plan is two-pronged: the overland Silk Road
Economic Belt and the Maritime Silk Road- The two
were collectively referred to first as the One Belt, One
Road initiative but eventually became the Belt and
Road Initiative. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
 The project involves creating a vast network of
railways, energy pipelines, highways, and
streamlined border crossings.
Italy, a member of Group of 7 (G-7) , has joined the Belt and
Road Initiative in 2019. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.

Q4. With reference to e-courts project, consider the
following statements-

1. It is a Pan-India project and funded by the Ministry
   of Electronics & Information Technology.
2. It is conceptualized on the recommendations of the
   Justice Verma Committee.
3. It will increase the judiciary’s transparency,
   productivity and make the justice delivery system
   more accessible and affordable.
   Which of the statements above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

Explanation:
e-Courts Project
The e-Courts project was conceptualized on the basis of the
“National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the
Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by e-Committee,
Supreme Court of India with a vision to transform the
Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
The e-Courts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project,
monitored and funded by the Ministry of Law and Justice
for the District Courts across the country. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
The project envisages:
To provide efficient & time-bound citizen-centric services
delivery as detailed in e-Court Project Litigant’s Charter.
To develop, install & implement decision support systems
in courts.
To automate the processes to provide transparency in the
accessibility of information to its stakeholders.
To enhance judicial productivity, both qualitatively &
quantitatively, to make the justice delivery system
affordable, accessible, cost-effective, predictable, reliable
and transparent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q5. With reference to Judicial Review in India, consider the
following statements:

1. The provision of judicial review has been adopted
   from the constitution of the United States of America.
2. The scope of judicial review power of the Supreme
   Court in India is wider than that of the US Supreme
   Court.
3. All laws come under Judicial Review if they violate the
   basic structure of the Constitution.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed
in the USA. The Supreme Court has declared the power of
judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an
element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence,
the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded
even by a constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what
exists in the USA. This is because the American
Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that
of ‘procedure established by law’ which is contained in the
Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added
the Ninth Schedule to it. In a landmark ruling on 11
January 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all
laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be
open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic
structure of the constitution. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.

Q6. With reference to the Sovereign Gold Bonds scheme
2021-22, consider the following statements:

1. The minimum permissible investment will be one gram
   of gold.
2. The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years with
   exit option after 5th year to be exercised on the next interest
   payment dates.
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Explanation:
Both statements are correct.
 The Central Government in consultation with the
Reserve Bank of India, has decided to issue Sovereign
Gold Bonds.
 The Sovereign Gold Bonds will be issued in six
tranches from 17th May to September 2021.
 The Bonds will be sold through Scheduled
Commercial banks (except Small Finance Banks and
Payment Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India
Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices, and
recognised stock exchanges viz., National Stock
Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock
Exchange Limited.
 The minimum permissible investment will be one
gram of gold.
 Investors will be compensated at a fixed rate of 2.50
percent per annum payable semi-annually on the
nominal value.
 The Bonds will be restricted for sale to resident
individuals, Hindu Undivided Families, Trusts,
Universities and Charitable Institutions.
 The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years
with exit option after 5th year to be exercised on the
next interest payment dates.

Q7. Which of the following organisation releases the Future
of Jobs Report?

a) World Bank
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Trade Organization
d) UNICEF

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The World Economic Forum (WEF) in its report ‘Future of
Jobs’ found that machines are increasingly replacing jobs
done by people. It projected that more than half of all
workplace tasks will be carried out by machines by 2025.
 It predicts the loss of some 75 million jobs worldwide
by 2022, but also says 133 million new jobs will be
created.
 According to WEF, despite bringing widespread
disruption, the advent of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution could actually have a positive impact on
human employment.
Key Findings
 Four specific technological advances: universal
high-speed mobile internet; artificial intelligence;
widespread adoption of big data analytics; and cloud
technology—are set to dominate the 2018–2022
period as drivers positively affecting business growth.
 By 2022, large proportions of companies are likely or
very likely to have expanded their adoption of
technologies such as the internet of things, big data
analytics and app and web enabled markets, and to
make extensive use of cloud computing.
 Companies across all sectors are most likely to adopt
the use of stationary robots, in contrast to
humanoid, aerial or underwater robots, however
leaders in the Oil & Gas industry report the same
level of demand for stationary and aerial and
underwater robots, while employers in the Financial
Services industry are most likely to signal the
planned adoption of humanoid robots in the period
up to 2022.

Q8. With reference to the anticipatory bail, consider the
following statements:

1. Under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code there
   is a provision for a person to seek ‘Anticipatory Bail’.
2. This means that an individual can seek or request to get
   bail in anticipation or in expectation of being named or
   accused of having committed a non-bailable offence.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

Explanation:
Under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code there is
a provision for a person to seek ‘Anticipatory Bail’. This
means that an individual can seek or request to get bail in
anticipation or in expectation of being named or accused of
having committed a non-bailable offence. To get
anticipatory bail the person seeking it, must approach the
Court of Sessions or the High Court and citing section 438
of the Criminal Procedure Code apply for it. Hence both
statements are correct.

Q9. Who among the following is the head of high-level task
force of ‘Namami Gange’ Programme?

(a) Cabinet Secretary of India
(b) Union Minister of Water Resources, River Development
and Ganga Rejuvenation
(c) Secretary of Ministry of Water Resources, River
Development and Ganga Rejuvenation
(d) None of the above

Solution: (a)

Explanation:
In 2015, the Union Cabinet approved the flagship ‘Namami
Gange’ programme which integrates the efforts to clean and
protect the Ganga River in a comprehensive manner. In
order to implement ‘Namami Gange’ Programme, a
three-tier mechanism has been proposed for project
monitoring comprising of: a high-level task force
chaired by Cabinet Secretary, State level committee
chaired by Chief Secretary and District level committee
chaired by the District Magistrate.

Q10. With reference to the Emergency Credit Line
Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), consider the following
statements:

1. ECLGS 3.0 will only cover business enterprises in
   Hospitality.
2. ECLGS 3.0 would involve extension of credit of upto 40%
   of total credit outstanding across all lending institutions as
   on 29.02.2020.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

In recognition of the continuing adverse impact of COVID-
19 pandemic on certain service sectors, the Government

has now extended the scope of Emergency Credit Line

Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) through introduction of
ECLGS 3.0. ECLGS 3.0 will cover business enterprises in
Hospitality, Travel & Tourism, Leisure & Sporting sectors
which had, as on 29.02.2020, total credit outstanding not
exceeding Rs. 500 crore and overdues, if any, were for 60
days or less, on that date i.e., 29th Feb 2020. ECLGS 3.0
would involve extension of credit of upto 40% of total credit
outstanding across all lending institutions as on
29.02.2020. The tenor of loans granted under ECLGS 3.0
shall be 6 years including moratorium period of 2 years.
 Further, the validity of ECLGS i.e., ECLGS 1.0,
ECLGS 2.0 & ECLGS 3.0 have been extended upto
In recognition of the continuing adverse impact of COVID-
19 pandemic on certain service sectors, the Government

has now extended the scope of Emergency Credit Line

Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) through introduction of
ECLGS 3.0. ECLGS 3.0 will cover business enterprises in
Hospitality, Travel & Tourism, Leisure & Sporting sectors
which had, as on 29.02.2020, total credit outstanding not
exceeding Rs. 500 crore and overdues, if any, were for 60
days or less, on that date i.e., 29th Feb 2020. ECLGS 3.0
would involve extension of credit of upto 40% of total credit
outstanding across all lending institutions as on
29.02.2020. The tenor of loans granted under ECLGS 3.0
shall be 6 years including moratorium period of 2 years.
 Further, the validity of ECLGS i.e., ECLGS 1.0,
ECLGS 2.0 & ECLGS 3.0 have been extended upto.In recognition of the continuing adverse impact of COVID-
19 pandemic on certain service sectors, the Government
has now extended the scope of Emergency Credit Line
30.06.2021 or till guarantees for an amount of Rs. 3
lakh crore are issued. Last date of disbursement
under the scheme has been extended to 30.09.2021.
 The modifications introduced in the scheme, while
providing an incentive to MLIs to enable availability
of additional funding facility to the eligible
beneficiaries will go a long way in contributing to
economic revival.
 The revised operational guidelines in this regard shall
be issued by National Credit Guarantee Trustee
Company Ltd (NCGTC). Hence only statement 2 is
correct.