28 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS

Q1. Consider the following statements

1. End-to-end encryption is a system of communication where only the
communicating users can read the messages.

2. According to IT Rules, any intermediary shall not be held legally for third party
   information/data/communication link shared on platform in any case.
   Select the correct answer using the code below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)

Explanation:
End-to-End Encryption vs Traceability
 End-to-end encryption was designed to help ensure that nobody other than the
person you are talking to can know that you sent a particular message. This is the
exact opposite of traceability, which would reveal who sent what to whom.
 End-to-end encryption is a system of communication where only the
communicating users can read the messages.
 Traceability would force private companies to collect and store who-said-what and
who-shared-what for billions of messages sent each day. This will require platforms
to collect more data than they need, solely for the purpose of turning it over to law
enforcement agencies.
Section 79 of the IT Act 2000
 It says any intermediary shall not be held legally or otherwise liable for any third
party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted on its
platform.
 Third party information means any information dealt with by a network
service provider in his capacity as an intermediary.
 This protection shall be applicable if the said intermediary does not in any way
initiate the transmission of the message in question, select the receiver of the
transmitted message and does not modify any information contained in the
transmission.
 It is not granted if the intermediary, despite being informed or notified by the
government or its agencies, does not immediately disable access to the material
under question.
 The intermediary must not tamper with any evidence of these messages or content
present on its platform, failing which it loses its protection under the Act.

Q2. With reference to Indian Biodiversity, consider the following statements

1. Blackbuck is state animal of Haryana, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh.
2. Out of 8 species of Pangolins, 5 species are found in India.
3. Dehing Patkai has highest density of one- horned Rhinoceros in World.
   Select the correct answer using the code below

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:
Conservation:
 The blackbuck is listed under Appendix III of
CITES.
 In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited
under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act of 1972.
 Blackbuck has been declared as the state
animal by the governments of Punjab,
Haryana and Andhra Pradesh.
 Tribes such as the Bishnois revere and care for most animals including the
blackbuck.

PANGOLINS IN INDIA
 Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and
the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) are found in India.
 Indian Pangolin is a large anteater covered by 11-13 rows of scales on the back. A
terminal scale is also present on the lower side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin,
which is absent in the Chinese Pangolin.
Habitat
 Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except the arid region, high
Himalayas and the North-East. The species is also found in Bangladesh, Pakistan,
Nepal and Sri Lanka.
 Chinese Pangolin is found in the
Himalayan foothills in Eastern Nepal,
Bhutan, Northern India, North-East
Bangladesh and through Southern China.
 Threats to Pangolins in India: Hunting and
poaching for local consumptive use (e.g. as
a protein source and traditional medicine)
and international trade for its meat and
scales in East and South East Asian countries, particularly China and Vietnam.
Protection Status
IUCN Red List
Indian Pangolin: Endangered
Chinese Pangolin: Critically Endangered
Both these species are listed under Schedule I, Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,

1972. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of one-horned rhinos in
      the world and second highest number of Rhinos in Assam after Kaziranga National Park.

Q3. With reference to International Trade, consider the following statements
regarding World Trade Organisation

1. The Dispute Settlement Body is the sole authority to establish “panels” of experts
   to consider the case.
2. The appeal to Dispute Settlement Body is appealed to Appellate body.
3. The decision of Appellate Body is final and binding.
   Select the correct answer using the code below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Explanation:
Dispute settlement at WTO:
 Resolving trade disputes is one of the core activities of the WTO.
 A dispute arises when a member government believes another member government
is violating an agreement or a commitment that it has made in the WTO.
 The WTO has one of the most active international dispute settlement mechanisms
in the world.
Dispute Settlement Body (DSB):
 Settling disputes is the responsibility of the Dispute Settlement Body, which
consists of all WTO members.
 The Dispute Settlement Body has the sole authority to establish “panels” of
experts to consider the case.
 As the panel’s report can only be rejected by consensus in the Dispute Settlement
Body, its conclusions are difficult to overturn.
Appellate Body (AB):
The appeal to the DSB ruling is heard by the Appellate Body (AB) and a report is submitted
to the DSB.
The appeal is heard by three member panel of the permanent Appellate Body (consisting
of a total seven-members) set up by the Dispute Settlement Body and broadly representing
the range of WTO membership.
Ruling by AB is final and binding.
Once the AB report is adopted by the DSB, the member concerned is obliged to implement
the findings and recommendations within a reasonable period of time.
Judges to AB:
Judges to AB are appointed for a four-year term (renewable for at most another term) by
consensus among WTO members.
At any time, AB can have up to seven members of which three make the quorum for hearing
a dispute.

Q4. With reference to Personal Liberty in Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements

1. Right to be Forgotten is a statutory right in India.
2. The Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill has no provision with respect to Right to be
   Forgotten.
3. Right to be Forgotten empowers individuals to ask organisations to delete their
   personal data.
   Select the correct answer using the code below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Right to be forgotten (RTBF)
 The Right to be forgotten (RTBF) is the right to have personal information removed
from publicly available sources, including the internet and search engines,
databases, websites etc. once the personal information in question is no longer
necessary or relevant.
 In the pre-internet era, such information would have been practically inaccessible
after its initial publication. However, in the digital world, such information is easily
accessible.
 The simple logic for the creation of this right is that a person must be able to control
his/her data by seeking its deletion.
RTBF in Europe:
RTBF has been recognized as a statutory right in the European Union (EU) under the
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and has been upheld by a number of courts
in the United Kingdom, and in Europe.
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), is Europe’s digital privacy law passed by the
28-member bloc (EU) in 2018.
RTBF provisions in India
There is no statutory provision in India at present that provides right to be forgotten.
The Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill 2019 contains a provision on the right to be
forgotten. However, the bill is yet to be passed in the Parliament.
Under the PDP Bill, RTBF may be granted only after the ‘Adjudicating
Officer’ appointed under the PDP Bill approves an application made by the individual.
Hence, the RTBF under the PDP Bill is a limited right and is subject to approval by the
Adjudicating Officer.
As per GDPR, the right to be forgotten empowers individuals to ask organisations to
delete their personal data, when it is not needed or when the person concerned revokes
(cancels) his consent.

Q5. With reference to Buddhism in India, consider the following statements

1. The reclining Buddha is first depicted in Mathura School of Art.
2. Reclining Buddha represents Gautama in his last illness, about to enter “Dhyaan
   Mudra.”
3. Abhay Mudra symbolizes Peace, Protection and Dispelling of fear.
   Select the correct answer using the code below

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only

Solution: d)

Explanation:
About the Reclining
Buddha:
 A reclining Buddha
is an image that
represents Buddha
lying down and is a
major
iconographic
theme in Buddhist
art.
 Statues and images of the Reclining Buddha show him lying on his right side, his
head resting on a cushion or on his right elbow.
 It represents the Buddha during his last illness, about to enter Parinirvana, the
stage of great salvation after death that can only be attained by enlightened souls.
 The Buddha’s death came when he was 80 years old, in a state of meditation, in
Kushinagar in eastern Uttar Pradesh.
 It is meant to show that all beings have the potential to be awakened and be released
from the cycle of death and rebirth.
 The reclining Buddha was first depicted in Gandhara Art.
Dhyana mudra:
 The Dhyana mudra may be made with
one or both hands.
 When made with a single hand the left
one is placed in the lap, while the right
may be engaged elsewhere. The left hand
making the Dhyana mudra in such
cases symbolizes the female left-hand
principle of wisdom
 When made with both hands, the hands
are generally held at the level of the stomach or on the thighs.
 The Dhyana mudra is the mudra of meditation, of concentration on the Good law,
and of the attainment of spiritual perfection.
 It indicates the perfect balance of thought, rest of the senses and tranquillity.
 According to tradition, this mudra derives from the one assumed by Buddha when
meditating under the pipal tree before his Enlightenment.
Abhaya Mudra:
It is a gesture of fearlessness or blessing that
represents the protection, peace, benevolence
and dispelling of fear. It is performed with the help
of right hand by raising to shoulder height with a
bent arm and the face of the palm will be facing
outward with fingers upright whereas the left hand
hanging down while standing. This gesture is
characteristic of Buddha Shakyamuni and Dhyani
Buddha Amoghasiddhi.

Q6. Consider the following statements1. In India, there are more than 100 products which have acquired GI (Geographical
Indication) Tag.

2. (Geographical Indication) GI Tag is given by World Trade Organisation in each
   country.
3. GI (Geographical Indication) Tag is given for 5 years only. It cannot be further
   renewed.
   Which of the above statement/(s) is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Explanation:
 There are 365 Products which have acquired GI Tag in India. GI registry has
classified the products into four categories- agricultural, manufactured, handicraft,
natural and food stuff. The category wise analysis of the registered GIs shows that
209 of them are handicrafts and 109 are agricultural products. These two categories
along amount to 58% and 30% of all the GIs registered respectively in India till
date. The remaining 12% constitutes 24 manufactured products, 17 food stuff and
2 natural products. The two natural products are Makrana Marble of Rajasthan and
Chunar Balua Patthar from Uttar Pradesh.
 Karnataka with 45, has the largest number of GI tags in India.
 GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act,1999. This tag is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry
under the Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
 The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years. It can
be renewed from time to time for further period of 10 years each.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. RBI’s income comes mainly through interest on the securities it holds.
2. RBI does not earn any income from intervention in the currency markets.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect
 RBI earns regular income by deploying its reserves in interest-bearing foreign
currency, government securities and gold. RBI’s income comes mainly through
interest on the securities it holds.
 RBI notionally gains or loses on its Currency and Gold Revaluation Account every
year due to the change in the market value of gold and rupee
 RBI’s income also comes from intervention in the currency markets to adjust
liquidity or prevent large fluctuations in the value of rupee.

Q8. Zabarwan range is located in:
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Gujarat
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Madhya Pradesh

Solution: d)

Q9. With reference to the Special Purpose Acquisition Companies (SPACs), consider the
following statements:

1. An SPAC, or a blank-cheque company, is an entity specifically set up with the objective
   of acquiring a firm in a particular sector.
2. The aim of this SPAC is to raise money in an initial public offering (IPO), and at this
   point in time, it does not have any operations or revenues.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Explanation:
 An SPAC, or a blank-cheque company, is an entity specifically set up with the
objective of acquiring a firm in a particular sector.
 The aim of this SPAC is to raise money in an initial public offering (IPO), and at this
point in time, it does not have any operations or revenues.
 Once the money is raised from the public, it is kept in an escrow account, which
can be accessed while making the acquisition. If the acquisition is not made within
two years of the IPO, the SPAC is delisted and the money is returned to the investors.
 Certain market participants believe that, through an SPAC transaction, a private
company can become a publicly-traded company “with more certainty as to pricing
and control over deal terms as compared to traditional IPOs.
 In India, renewable energy producer ReNew Power last month announced an
agreement to merge with RMG Acquisition Corp II, a blank-cheque company, in
what became the first involving an Indian company during the latest boom in SPAC
deals.

Q10. Which of the following could be attributed to Stubble Burning on Indo-Gangetic
Plain?
1.Use of Combined Harvesters.

2. Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act
3. Small window between Harvesting and Sowing Period.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1,2 and 3
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 only
   d) 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:
Stubble (parali) burning is the act of setting fire to crop residue to remove them from the
field to sow the next crop.
 In order to plant next winter crop (Rabi crop), farmers in Haryana and Punjab have
to move in a very short interval and if they are late, due to short winters these days,
they might face considerable losses. Therefore, burning is the cheapest and fastest
way to get rid of the stubble.
o If parali is left in the field, pests like termites may attack the upcoming crop.
o The precarious economic condition of farmers doesn’t allow them to use
expensive mechanised methods to remove stubble.
 Reasons for Stubble burning
 Mechanization (use of combine harvesters) leaves behind smaller stubble on the
ground that is difficult to collect.
 o Laws like Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act which has delayed date for
paddy transplantation.
 o Crop intensification leaves farmers with small windows to clear the fields so
burning the residue is the easiest.