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28 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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28 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements1. Right to be forgotten is an intrinsic part of Right to Privacy under Part IV of Indian Constitution.

  1. Right to be left alone means withdrawing from society.
    Which of the above-given statements are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are not correct.
    Judgement: Right to privacy includes the right to be forgotten and the right to be left alone.
    About the Right to Privacy: In Puttaswamy v. Union of India case, 2017, the Right to Privacy was
    declared a fundamental right by the Supreme Court.
    Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under
    Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
    About Right to be Forgotten (RTBF): It is the right to have publicly available personal information
    removed from the internet, search, databases, websites or any other public platforms, once the
    personal information in question is no longer necessary, or relevant.
    The RTBF gained importance after the 2014 decision of the Court of Justice of the European Union
    (“CJEU”) in the Google Spain case.
    In the Indian context, the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy v. Union of India, 2017 noted that the
    RTBF was a part of the broader right of privacy.
    The RTBF emerges from the right to privacy under Article 21 and partly from the right to dignity
    under Article 14.
    About the Right to be Left Alone: It doesn’t mean that one is withdrawing from society. It is an
    expectation that society will not interfere in the choices made by the person so long as they do not
    cause harm to others.
    Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Volcanic Landforms:
  2. Conical vents are common in basaltic volcanism.
  3. Fissure vents are common in andesitic volcanism.
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  4. Stromboli ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’ is example of Composite type Volcanic
    Landforms
  5. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples of Shield type Volcanic Landforms
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    c) 3 and 4 only
    d) All of the above
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect.
     A conical vent is a narrow cylindrical vent through which magma flows out violently.
     Conical vents are common in andesitic (composite or stratovolcano) volcanism.
    Statement 2 is incorrect.
     A fissure vent, also known as a volcanic fissure or eruption fissure, is a narrow, linear
    volcanic vent through which lava erupts, usually without any explosive activity.
     The vent is often a few meters wide and may be many kilometers long.
     Fissure vents are common in basaltic volcanism.
    Statement 3 is correct.
     Composite Type Volcanic Landforms are conical or central type volcanic landforms.
     Andesitic lava along with pyroclastic material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent
    openings leading to formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear as composite
    volcanoes.
     The highest and most common volcanoes have composite cones.
     Stromboli ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’, Mt. Vesuvius, Mt. Fuji etc. are examples.
    Statement 4 is correct.
     Shield type volcanic landforms are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very
    fluid when erupted.
     These volcanoes are not steep.
     The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples.
    Q3. “KAZIND-Exercise” is conducted between which of the following countries?
    a) India-Uzbekistan
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    b) India-Oman
    c) Russia-India
    d) India-Kazakhstan
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
     About KAZIND-21
    o The exercise is a joint training between both the Armies.
    o The scope of Joint Exercise includes professional exchange, sharing experiences in
    Counter Insurgency/ Counter Terrorism operations, etc.
     Joint Military Exercise: Prabal dostyk.
     Importance of Kazakhstan:
    o First, its geo-strategic location; second, its economic potential, especially in terms of
    energy resources; and third, its multi-ethnic and secular structure.
     Kazakhstan is the most resource-rich country in Central Asia and is also
    India’s largest trade and investment partner.
    Q4. Consider the following statements about Chikungunya1. Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral disease.
  6. Currently, there is no vaccine to cure chikungunya.
    Which of the statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are correct.
    Chikungunya:
    About:
    Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral disease first described during an outbreak in southern
    Tanzania in 1952.
    Transmission:
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    It is transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito.
    It is most often spread to people by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes. These are the
    same mosquitoes that transmit dengue virus.
    Mosquitoes acquire the infection by biting infected humans or animals.
    Weather conditions also affect their breeding and survival.
    Symptoms:
    Include severe joint pain, muscle pain, headache, nausea, fatigue and rashes.
    Recently, International Vaccine Institute (IVI) has announced that Bharat Biotech’s Chikungunya
    vaccine candidate (BBV87) has entered into Phase II and III clinical trials. Currently, there is no
    commercial chikungunya vaccine.
    Q5. With reference to ‘Greater Malé Connectivity Project (GMCP)’, consider the following
    statements:
  7. It is India’s largest project in the Maldives.
  8. It facilitates inter-island connectivity in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are correct.
    This infrastructure project, the largest-ever by India in the Maldives, involves the construction of a
    6.74-km-long bridge and causeway link that will connect the Maldives capital Malé with the
    neighbouring islands of Villingli, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi. This project was funded by India in a grant
    of $100 million, with a line of credit of $400 million. This project is significant because it facilitates
    inter-island connectivity in the country. The GMCP is not only the biggest project India is doing in
    the Maldives but also the biggest infrastructure project in the Maldives overall
    Q6. Consider the following statements with regards to representation system in India:
  9. In the first past the post system, the vote threshold is so high that newer parties face
    difficulties in contesting elections.
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  10. Proportional representation system leads to a stable form of government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    The first-past-the-post (FPTP) system
     The Indian constitution adopts the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system of elections, otherwise
    known as simple majority where a candidate with the most number of votes from a
    constituency wins the seat.
     It is also known as the simple majority system.
     This system is used in India in direct elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
    Assemblies.
    Issues with FPTP system
     It does not always allow for a truly representative mandate, as the candidate could win
    despite securing less than half the votes in a contest.
    o The FPTP system tends to magnify the seat share of the party with the largest vote
    share, while parties receiving a lower vote share tend to get a much lower seat
    share.
    o The disproportionate number of seats accrued by a party despite a lower vote
    share.
     The other issue with the FPTP is that the threshold is so high that newer parties cannot
    enter the fray. 1 is correct.
    Proportional representation (PR) system
     This refers to an electoral system in which the distribution of seats corresponds closely with
    the proportion of the total votes cast for each party.
     This is a more complicated but representative system than the first-past-the-post (FPTP)
    system, which is used in India.
     If a party gets 40% of the total votes, for example, a perfectly proportional system would
    allow it to get 40% of the seats. Some countries used a combination of the proportional
    representation system and the FPTP system.
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     FPTP is currently used to elect members of the House of Commons in the UK, both chambers
    of the US Congress and the lower houses in both Canada and India.
    Issues with Proportional representation system
     Logistical difficulties: First, as certain constituencies have a large population, its
    implementation becomes impractical and administratively difficult.
     The British Parliament’s Royal Commission Report of 1910 which examined proportional
    representation and simple majority systems. The report believed that proportional
    representation threatened the stability of government.
     Coalition governments, which in turn lead to legislative gridlock and consequent inability
    to carry out coherent policies.
     A destabilizing fragmentation of the party system. PR can reflect and facilitate a
    fragmentation of the party system. It is possible that extreme pluralism can allow tiny
    minority parties to hold larger parties to ransom in coalition negotiations.2 is incorrect.
    Q7. EASE 4.0 was in the news recently. The term is used in the context of
    a) E-governance
    b) Public Sector Banks
    c) Ease of doing business
    d) None of the above
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Finance Minister undertook the annual performance review of the public sector banks (PSBs) and
    launched the EASE 4.0 or Enhanced Access and Service Excellence – a common reform agenda for
    PSBs aimed at institutionalising clean and smart banking.
    Detailing about the benefits of EASE 4.0, Finance Secretary said that the proposal for enhancement
    of family pension and employer’s contribution under the NPS is approved by the finance minister.
    The benefits would now accrue to family pensioners. He said that the cap on pay is removed and a
    uniform slab of 30 per cent will be in force. The pension can go as high as Rs 35,000.
    Q8. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions, arrange the following committees in a
    chronological manner1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  11. Ashok Mehta Committee
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  12. LM Singhvi Committee
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1-2-3
    b) 2-3-1
    c) 3-2-1
    d) 1-3-2
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Option A is the correct answer. Planning Commission appointed a committee headed by Balwantrai
    Mehta in 1957 to study the Community Development Programmes and National Extension Services
    Programme especially to assess the extent of people’s participation and to recommend ways to
    ensure this.
    Ashok Mehta Committee’s recommendations in 1978 for a two-tier system with Zilla Parishad at
    the district level and Mandal Panchayat as the base and L. M. Singhvi
    Committee’s (1986) recommendations that the PRIs should be enshrined in the Constitution and
    ‘Gram Sabha’ should be the base for decentralised democracy, bore fruits in the form of the 73rd
    Constitutional Amendment Act, 1993.
    Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Interest Subvention Scheme:
  13. It aims to provide short-term crop loans up to 3 lakh to farmers at an interest rate of 7% per
    annum.
  14. The Interest Subvention Scheme is being implemented by NABARD and RBI.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are correct.
    The Interest Subvention Scheme aims to provide short-term crop loans up to Rs. 3 lakhs to farmers
    at an interest rate of 7 per cent per annum.
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    The Interest Subvention Scheme is being implemented by NABARD and RBI.
    Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Development Financial Institutions (DFIs):
  15. DFIs are set up for providing long-term finance to various sectors of the economy.
  16. The main source of funds of DFIs include government funds and multilateral institutions.
  17. ICICI Bank is the first DFI to be set up in India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
     Development Finance Institutions (DFISs) are specialized institutions set up primarily to
    provide development/ Project finance especially in developing countries.
     These DFIs are usually majority-owned by national governments.
     The source of capital of these banks is national or international development funds.
     DFIs are set up for providing long-term finance for such segments of the economy where
    the risks involved are beyond the acceptable limits of commercial banks and other
    ordinary financial institutions.
     Unlike banks, DFIs do not accept deposits from people. Hence,
     They source funds from the market, government, as well as multilateral institutions, and
    are often supported through government guarantees.
     The first DFI was the Industrial Financial Corporation of India (IFCI) that was launched in
    1948..
     IDBI, UTI, NABARD, EXIM Bank, SIDBI, NHB, IIFCL etc are the other major DFIs.
     Later several of them were converted into banks as industry like ICICI Bank, IDBI Bank etc.