22 SEPTEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which of the following organization releases Global Innovation Index Report?
a) World Bank
b) World Intellectual Property Organization
c) UNESCO
d) Brand Life
Solution: b)
Explanation:
Global Innovation Index (GII) 2021:
Launch: The GII is launched by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), a specialized
agency of the United Nations.
The GII aims to capture the multi-dimensional facets of innovation ranking and rich analysis
referencing around 132 economies.
Partnership: It is published in partnership with the Portulans Institute and other corporate partners.
India’s Performance:
 India has been on an upward trajectory over the past few years in the GII.
 India has shot up from a rank of 81 in 2015 to 46 in 2021.
 India performs better in innovation outputs than innovation inputs in 2021.
 This year India ranks 57th in innovation inputs, the same as last year but higher than 2019.
 As for innovation outputs, India ranks 45th. This position is the same as last year but higher
than 2019.
 India ranks 2nd among the 34 lower middle-income group economies.
 India ranks 1st among the 10 economies in Central and Southern Asia.
The government attributed the country’s improved performance to the departments of atomic
energy, science and technology, biotechnology and space.
Q2. “IndiGau” was recently seen in news isa) First Cattle Genomic Chip
b) Drone developed DRDO
c) First Cloned Cow in India
d) None
Solution: a)
Explanation:
It is India’s first Cattle Genomic Chip conservation varieties of indigenous cattle breeds and helps
towards doubling farmers’ income by 2022. It is the largest cattle chip in the world with 11,496
markers.
• Till now India’s dairy development program has been referring to chips which are developed for
foreign western breeds of cattle.
• This indigenous chip was developed by the National Institute of Animal
Biotechnology (Hyderabad), an autonomous institution under the aegis of the Department of
Biotechnology.
Q3. Which of the statements are correct about Nucleic acid vaccines?
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1. It uses a weakened form of virus or bacteria into the body to trigger immune response.
2. They can generate a stronger type of immunity as compared to traditional vaccines.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 1 is not correct.
   Recently, Zydus Cadilla, a pharmaceutical company, got approval for ZyCov-D, its plasmid DNA
   vaccine against COVID-19.
    It is the world’s first DNA vaccine against COVID-19.
    Vaccine was developed in partnership with Department of Biotechnology under ‘Mission
   COVID
   Suraksha’ (launched under AtmaNirbhar Bharat package 3.0).
    Both DNA and RNA are types of Nucleic acid vaccines (also known as gene-based vaccines).
   About Nucleic Acid vaccines
   • Instead of injecting a weakened form of a virus or bacteria into the body, Nucleic acid vaccines use
   genetic material from a disease-causing virus or bacterium (a pathogen) to stimulate an immune
   response against it.
   o That immune response, which produces antibodies, is what protects us from getting infected if
   the real virus enters our bodies.
   • Depending on the vaccine, the genetic material could be DNA or RNA.
   Advantages of Nucleic acid vaccines
   Safe and non-infectious as they are not made with pathogen particles or inactivated pathogen.
   Can generate a stronger type of immunity and are well tolerated as compared to traditional
   vaccines.
   Can be produced more rapidly as they do not require a host for growth, e.g., eggs or bacteria.
   Q4. With regard to Marburg virus, consider the following statements1. It is a highly virulent disease that causes haemorrhagic fever.
3. It belongs to the same family as Ebola virus.
4. Human-to-Human infection spread is possible.
   Which of the above given statements are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1,2 and 3
   d) 3 only
   Solution: c)
   Explanation:
   All statements are correct.
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   Guinea, in western Africa, have confirmed a case of the Marburg disease
   About Marburg
    It is highly virulent disease that causes haemorrhagic fever, with a fatality ratio of up to
   88%.
    Belongs to same family as Ebola virus.
    First outbreak was in 1967 in Germany and Serbia simultaneously.
    Humans catch this infection through prolonged exposure to mines or caves inhabited by
   Rousettus bats.
    It can spread through human-to-human transmission via direct contact of infected people,
   and with contaminated surfaces and materials.
   Q5. Consider the following statements –
5. Ramappa Temple is the first temple in India which is named after its sculptor.
6. It was built during Chalukyas period.
7. Marco-Polo, visited this temple and wrote about it in his memoirs.
   Which of the above statements given above are correct?
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   Statement 2 is not correct.
   It is said that traveller Marco Polo described this temple as “the brightest star in the galaxy of
   medieval temples”.
   The temple in Warangal district is perhaps the only one to be named after the sculptor. The very
   name Ramappa temple brings to mind the intricate carvings and floating bricks – the 800-year-old
   engineering marvels of Kakatiya regime craftsmanship.
   is a masterpiece of Kakatiyan style of Temple architecture with the use of engineering innovation
   by creating floating bricks, sand-box foundations, material selection knowledge and ingenuity in
   stone sculpting as technological ensemble.
   • Its construction started in 1213 AD during the reign of Recharla Rudra, a general of Kakatiya king
   Ganapati Deva.
   o It has been built over 40 years by sculptor Ramappa.
    It is a sandstone temple dedicated to Ramalingeswara Swamy (Shiva). Ramappa is the main
   Shiva temple in a larger walled temple complex, which includes several smaller temples and
   structures.
   o It is close to the shores of the Ramappa Cheruvu, a Kakatiya-built water reservoir.
    The temple building stands on a 6 feet high star-shaped platform with intricate carvings on
   beams and pillars of carved granite and dolerite.
   Q6. Which of the following statements are correct about Dated Government Securities?
8. They are securities which carry a fixed or floating coupon rate which is paid on face value.
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9. Generally, the tenor of dated securities is less than 3 years.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   Statement 2 is not correct.
   Dated G-Secs:
    Dated G-Secs are securities which carry a fixed or floating coupon (interest rate) which is
   paid on the face value, on half-yearly basis.
    Generally, the tenor of dated securities ranges from 5 years to 40 years.
   Q7. Which of the following statements are correct about Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan
   Yojana?
10. This scheme provides welfare support to places and people affected by mining.
11. As per the scheme, high priority areas like drinking water, health care, sanitation, education will
    get atleast 60% of funds.
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are correct.
    Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY)
    • It is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people affected by mining related operations,
    using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).
    • The scheme ensures mitigating the adverse impacts, during and after mining, on the environment,
    health and socio-economics of people in mining districts; and to ensure long-term sustainable
    livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
    • As per this scheme, High priority areas like drinking water, health care, sanitation, education,
    skill development, welfare measures, skill development and environment conservation will get at
    least 60% share of the funds.
    Q8. Which of the following matches the matches the description?
12. It is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects and leads to an acute form of
    hemorrhagic fever in domestic and wild pigs.
13. It is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
14. It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
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    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) African Swine Fever
    b) Severe Acute Syndrome Covid-2
    c) Bird Flu
    d) Polio
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    African Swine Fever
     It is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects and leads to an acute form of
    hemorrhagic fever in domestic and wild pigs.
     Other manifestations of the disease include high fever, depression, anorexia, loss of
    appetite, hemorrhages in the skin, vomiting and diarrhoea among others.
     It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
    o Historically, outbreaks have been reported in Africa and parts of Europe, South
    America, and the Caribbean.
    o However, more recently (since 2007), the disease has been reported in multiple
    countries across Africa, Asia and Europe, in both domestic and wild pigs.
     T7-he mortality is close to 100% and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop its
    spread is by culling the animals.
     ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
     ASF is a disease listed in the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) Terrestrial Animal
    Health Code and thus, reported to the OIE.
    Q9. Consider the following statements:
15. A petition in any language other than English cannot be heard in the Supreme Court of India.
16. The judgements and orders of high courts cannot be in any language other than English.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Constitution of India states that, until Parliament provides otherwise, all proceedings in the
    Supreme Court are to be in the English language only. The Parliament has not made any provision
    for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears only those who petition
    or appeal in English.
    The Constitution of India states that, until Parliament provides otherwise, all proceedings in high
    courts are to be in the English language only. Later the parliament passed the Official Languages Act
    of 1963, which enables the governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, to
    authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state for judgements, decrees and
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    orders passed by the high court of the state. But these should be accompanied by an English
    translation.
    Q10. The Ratoon pattern of cropping can be practiced for which of the following crops?
17. Papaya
18. Pineapple
19. Banana
20. Sugarcane
21. Sorghum
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1,2,3 and 5 only
    b) 2,3 and 5 only
    c) 1,4 and 5 only
    d) All of the above
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Ratooning- It is a way of raising a crop with regrowth coming out of roots or stocks of the harvested
    crops. Trees that are growing strongly and are too tall for economical harvesting can be cut back in
    early summer and allowed to reshoot. This is called ratooning. Protection from strong winds is
    essential, as ratooned trees are extremely susceptible to limb breakage and subsequent fruit loss.
    It can be practiced in Sugarcane, Banana, Sorghum, Pineapple, Papaya, Pigeon Pea etc.
    • Ex: Sugarcane (8 ratoons in Cuba)
    • Banana – one plant crop followed by two ratoon crops normally
    • Pineapple crop is extensively ratooned.