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20 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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20 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to Electoral Bonds, consider the following statements-

  1. These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of Registered Political party.
  2. The Bonds can be purchased by Citizens of India only.
  3. Parties which have secured more than 2% of votes in general election are eligible to
    receive Electoral Bonds.
    Select the correct answer using the code below-
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1 and 2

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Electoral Bond
 Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties.
 The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh
and Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
 State Bank of India is authorized to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid
for fifteen days from the date of issuance.
 These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
 The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or
incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of
January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
 A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other
individuals.
 Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond
 Conditions for Electoral Bonds: Only parties registered under the RPA,1951 could
receive donations through electoral bonds, and they also should not have secured
less than 1% of the votes polled in the previous elections.
 To Take on the Menace of Black Money in Politics: Only white money is involved
in the Bonds as the amounts are paid only through cheque or demand draft.
o KYC norms are also followed.
 Election Commission of India’s Support: ECI was not opposed to the bonds but
was only concerned about the aspect of anonymity.
 It also urged the court not to stay the bonds and said the scheme is one step
forward compared to the old system of cash funding, which was unaccountable.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Election Commission of India-

  1. There is well-described procedure in appointing Chief Election Commissioner and

Election Commissioner as per the Constitution.

  1. According to Constitution, President has the power to regulate the terms and
    conditions of service and Tenure of Election Commissioners.
  2. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by President of India.
    Select the correct answer using the code below-
    a) 1 and 3 only
    b) 3 only
    c) 1, 2 and 3
    d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Election Commission of India
About:
It is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and
State election processes in India.
The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative
Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
Article 324 of the Constitution: It provides for appointment of a Election commission to
superintend, direct and control the elections.
Structure:
Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election
Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body.
The commission presently consists of one Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two
Election Commissioners (ECs).
The secretariat of the commission is in New Delhi.
Present System of Appointment:
There is no prescribed procedure for appointment of the CEC and EC as per the
Constitution.
Under the Transaction of Business rules 1961, the President shall appoint the CEC and
EC based on the recommendations made by the Prime Minister.
Therefore, it is the executive power of the President to appoint CEC and ECs.
However, according to Article 324(5), the Parliament has the power to regulate the
terms of conditions of service and tenure of ECs.
Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of
Business) Act, 1991 was passed to determine the conditions of service of the CEC and
other ECs and to provide for the procedure for transaction of business by the ECI.
It is under Article 324(5) that the Parliament has made laws till date, and not under Article
324(2) in which the Parliament can establish a selection committee for regulating the
appointments made by the President.
Article 324(2) states that the President shall, with aid and advice of the Council of
Ministers, appoint CEC and ECs, till Parliament enacts a law fixing the criteria for
selection, conditions of service and tenure.

Q3. With reference to Cyclone Tauktae, which of the following statement(s)
is/are incorrect?

  1. It is a tropical cyclone, named by Bangladesh
  2. Typically, tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region (Bay of Bengal and
    Arabian Sea) develop during the post-monsoon (October-December) but cyclone
    Tauktae has been exceptional as it has developed in Pre-monsoon period.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Recently, Cyclone Tauktae made landfall in Gujarat.
Named by:
It is a tropical cyclone, named by Myanmar. It means ‘gecko’, a highly vocal lizard,
in the Burmese language.
Typically, tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region (Bay of Bengal and
Arabian Sea) develop during the pre-monsoon (April to June) and post-monsoon
(October to December) periods.
May-June and October-November are known to produce cyclones of severe intensity that
affect the Indian coasts.
Classification:
It has weakened into a “very severe cyclonic storm” from the “extremely severe
cyclonic storm”.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies cyclones on the basis of the
maximum sustained surface wind speed (MSW) they generate.
The cyclones are classified as severe (MSW of 48-63 knots), very severe (MSW of 64-89
knots), extremely severe (MSW of 90-119 knots) and super cyclonic storm (MSW of 120
knots or more). One knot is equal to 1.8 kmph (kilometres per hour).

Q4. With regard to Natural Gas, consider the following statements-

  1. Natural Gas is found in petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought on surface.
  2. In India, No Natural Gas Reserves are found.
  3. In India, 80% of Natural Gas Prices is controlled by Government.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Solution: c)
Explanation:
 Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is
brought to the surface. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
 In India, Jaisalmer, Krishna Godavari delta, Tripura and some areas offshore in
Mumbai have natural gas resources.
 Share of Natural Gas: While the world average share of natural gas in the energy
basket is 23%, it is only 6% for India.
o However, the government of India has set the target to make it 15% by 2030.
o Our consumption has been 1/3rd of world average. That would increase in
future.
Associated Challenges
 ONGC under APM: In India, 80% of natural gas produced by ONGC and Oil India
Limited falls under Administered Price Mechanism (APM) which means the
government controls its price.
 Reform related challenge: Currently, the reform impacts only 20% of gas
production, while the nominated fields account for 80% India’s gas production.
 The policy does not include existing producers.
 These fields will be out of the benefit zone of the new policy.
 The fertilizer Industry: The impediment is most of the gas coming from the
nominated fields is going to fertilizers which is highly subsidised, hence the sector
does not have its control over marketing and setting prices.
 Limited Reserves: Resources of natural gas are limited in India; 55% of natural
gas is imported in the form of Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) (which is even costlier).
 India’s reserves for natural gas are located in deep or ultradeep water which requires
specific technology and higher cost and extraction is difficult.
 Varied Prices: In India, natural gas is sold at varied prices- the gas under
administered price regime at $1.79 per mBtu and other domestic gas in the range
of $4.5 to $5.5 per mBtu.

Q5. With reference to the Blood plasma, consider the following statements:

  1. Blood plasma is a yellowish liquid component of blood that holds the blood cells of whole
    blood in suspension.
  2. It makes up about 55% of the body’s total blood volume.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Blood plasma is a yellowish liquid component of blood that holds the blood cells of whole
blood in suspension. It is the liquid part of the blood that carries cells and proteins
throughout the body. It makes up about 55% of the body’s total blood volume.
This plasma contains viral antibodies that have treatment potential for severe cases of the
disease.
Plasma therapy is a medical procedure that uses the blood of a recovered patient to create
antibodies on those infected individuals.
Medically known as convalescent plasma therapy, this treatment uses antibodies found in
the blood taken from a recovered Covid-19 patient. It is then used to treat those with severe
SARS-CoV-2 infection to aid recovery.

Q6. With reference to the Asian Development Bank’s (ADB), consider the following
statements:

  1. It was opened in 1966 at Tokyo.
  2. India is one of the founding members.
  3. It is an official United Nations Observer.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)
Explanation:
It was conceived in the early 1960s when a resolution was passed at the first Ministerial
Conference on Asian Economic Cooperation held by the United Nations Economic
Commission for Asia and the Far East in 1963.
The institution was opened in 1966 at Manila (Philippines capital) with 31 initial members.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Members: It has 67 members—of which 48 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19
outside. India is one of the founding members.
Objective:
It was conceived as a financial institution that would be Asian in character and foster
economic growth and cooperation in one of the poorest regions in the world.
As a multilateral development finance institution, ADB provides loans, technical
assistance and grants.
Working:
The ADB was modelled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting
system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
As of 31 December 2016, Japan and United States hold the largest proportion of shares at
15.607%. China holds 6.444%, India holds 6.331%, and Australia holds 5.786%
ADB is an official United Nations Observer.

Q7. With reference to Corals, consider the following statements:

  1. Corals are made up of genetically identical organisms called polyps.
  2. Coral bleaching is the rapid whitening of the coral.
  3. Zooxanthellae is a chemical secreted by corals that provides them their unique and
    beautiful colour.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Corals are made up of genetically identical organisms called polyps.
These polyps have microscopic algae called zooxanthellae (and not a chemical
secreted by corals) living within their tissues.
The corals and algae have a mutualistic relationship.
The coral provides the zooxanthellae with the compounds necessary for photosynthesis. In
return, the zooxanthellae supply the coral with organic products of photosynthesis, like
carbohydrates, which are utilized by the coral polyps for the synthesis of their calcium
carbonate skeletons.
In addition to providing corals with essential nutrients, zooxanthellae are responsible for
the unique and beautiful colours of corals.
Coral bleaching is the loss of the algae and a rapid whitening of the coral
This is a stress response by the coral host that can be caused by various factors such
as the rise in sea surface temperature.
If the temperature decreases, the stressed coral can recover; if it persists, the affected
colony can die.

Q8. Which of the reforms are brought by Introducing GST?

  1. Create unified market
  2. Streamline Taxation
  3. Discourage Tax Evasion

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Advantages of GST
 Create a unified common market: Will help to create a unified common national
market for India. It will also give a boost to foreign investment and “Make in India”
campaign.
 Streamline Taxation: Through harmonization of laws, procedures and rates of tax
between Centre and States and across States.
 Increase tax Compliance: Improved environment for compliance as all returns are
to be filed online, input credits to be verified online, encouraging more paper trail of
transactions at each level of supply chain;
 Discourage Tax evasion: Uniform SGST and IGST rates will reduce the incentive
for evasion by eliminating rate arbitrage between neighbouring States and that
between intra and inter-state sales.

Q9. “Global Liveability Index” was recently seen in the news is released by-
a) World Bank
b) Asian Development Bank
c) Economist Intelligence Unit
d) NITI Aayog

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Global Liveability Index
The Economic Intelligence Unit considered 140 cities for rankings.
The ranking is based on a particular country’s scores in five broad categories, namely:
 Stability
 Healthcare
 Culture and Environment
 Education
 Infrastructure
Each factor in a city is rated as acceptable, tolerable, comfortable, undesirable or
intolerable.
In India, New Delhi and Mumbai rank 118th and 119th out of 140 cities according to the
Economist Intelligence Unit’s Global Liveability Index 2019. Vienna in Austria, Melbourne
and Sydney in Australia make the top three cities while Damascus in Syria, Lagos in
Nigeria and Dhaka in Bangladesh rank in the bottom. The index assesses which locations
around the world provide the best or the worst living conditions.

Q10. “Input Tax Credit” frequently seen in the news-
a) Tax paid on Services and deducted from Income Tax
b) Tax paid on input material and deducted from output tax
c) Tax paid on Sin Goods and Deducted from Income Tax
d) None of the above

Solution: b)
Explanation:
 The meaning of ITC can be easily understood when we take the words ‘input’ and
‘tax credit’. Inputs are materials or services that a manufacturer purchase in order
to manufacture his product or services which is his output.
 Tax credit means the tax a producer was able to reduce while paying his tax on
output.
 Input tax credit means that when a manufacturer pays the tax on his output, he
can deduct the tax he previously paid on the input he purchased. Here, while paying
the tax on his output, he can deduct or take credit for the tax he paid while
purchasing inputs.

Let’s make it simple-
Example:

 An example will make things much clear. Suppose that a readymade garment firm
buys polyester (input) from a supplier (of input) at Rs 100 and a CGST of Rs 10 is
also has to be paid (CGST rate of 10%). The price of polyester input will be Rs 110.
 Now the garment manufacturer sells the product at Rs 200 plus tax (means his
value addition is Rs 100). Imagine that the GST rate of readymade shirt is 12%.
Here, the manufacturer must pay a tax of Rs 24. But he has previously paid a tax
of Rs 10 while purchasing the input of polyester. Hence, he can claim this Rs 10
and has to pay only the remaining Rs 14 (of the total Rs 24). The Rs 10 that the
manufacturer claimed is the input tax credit.

Q11. Consider the following statements about the ‘two state solution :

  1. The two-state solution to the Israeli–Palestinian conflict envisages an independent
    State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, east of the Jordan River.
  2. It is not accepted by Israel.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 & 2
    d) None of the above
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:

Only statement 2 is correct.
The two-state solution
 In 1974, a UN resolution on the
“Peaceful settlement of the question of
Palestine” called for “two States, Israel
and Palestine side by side within
secure and recognized borders”
together with “a just resolution of the
refugee question in conformity with
UN resolution 194″.
 The borders of the state of Palestine
would be “based on the pre-1967
borders”. The two-state solution to the
Israeli–Palestinian conflict envisages
an independent State of Palestine
alongside the State of Israel, west of
the Jordan River. Statement 1 is incorrect.
 The Palestinian leadership has accepted the concept. It is not accepted by Israel.

Q12. Global Entry Program, which is in the news, is run by:
a) United Nations
b) United States
c) World Health Organization
d) NASA

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Global Entry Program
 The Global Entry is a facility run by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP),
an agency that works under the Department of Homeland Security.
 Objective: It fast tracks movement of pre-approved, low-risk travellers upon arrival
after a rigorous background check through designated kiosks.
 Procedure:
o After receiving a request, the U.S. authorities send them to the Ministry of
External Affairs (MEA).

o The MEA forwards it to the Ministry of Home Affairs, which taps other
ministries, State police and other database to run a background check.
o The CBP does not process the application if a person has been “convicted of
any criminal offence or have pending criminal charges, including outstanding
warrants;
o have been found in violation of any customs, immigration or agriculture
regulations or laws in any country.”
o Applicants are charged $100 and a personal interview before they are
enrolled.
o Their biometrics are also collected.
 Members: India became a member of Global Entry in 2017.
o The other countries that are part of this programme are Argentina, Australia,
Canada, Colombia, Germany, Mexico, New Zealand, Panama, Republic of
Korea, Singapore, Switzerland, Taiwan and the United Kingdom.

Q13. DAP Fertilizer is manufactured by reacting Ammonia with
a) Phosphoric acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Potassium

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Di-ammonia phosphate (DAP) fertilizer
 Di-ammonium Phosphate popularly known as DAP is a preferred fertilizer in India
because of its high analysis and good physical properties.
 Composition: It contains both Nitrogen and Phosphorus which are primary
macro-nutrients and part of 18 essential plant nutrients.
o It is the most concentrated phosphate-based fertilizer.
o The composition of DAP is N-18% and P2O5 -46%.
 Manufacturing: DAP is manufactured by reacting Ammonia with Phosphoric acid
under controlled conditions in fertilizer plants.
Utility: It is perfect for any agriculture crop to provide full phosphorus nutrition
throughout crop growth and development, as well as a starter dose of nitrogen and low
sulphur.

Q14. Which of the following is/are included in the Harmonised Master List of
Infrastructure sub-sectors?

  1. Diagnostics Centre
  2. Affordable Rental Housing Complex
  3. Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)
Explanation:
The Finance Ministry has granted ‘Infrastructure’ status for exhibition and convention
centres, a move that is expected to ease bank financing for such projects.
 ‘Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre is included in the Harmonised Master List of
Infrastructure sub-sectors by insertion of a new item in the category of Social and
Commercial Infrastructure,’ the Department of Economic Affairs said.
 However, the benefits would only be available for projects with a minimum built-up floor
area of 1,00,000 sq. m. of exclusive exhibition space or convention space or both combined.
 As of now, the major projects under way in the sector are backed by the government – the
International Exhibition-cum-Convention Centres at Dwarka and Pragati Maidan in the
capital.
 The infrastructure tag does not involve significant tax breaks but would help such projects
get easier financing from banks, said experts. However, restrictions on size may be a
dampener.
 India doesn’t have large convention centres or single halls with capacities to hold 7,000 to
10,000 people, unlike countries like Thailand that is a major global MICE destination.
 Becoming a MICE (Meetings, Incentives, Conferences and Exhibitions) destination can
generate significant revenue with several global firms active in India but it will take time
to become a preferred destination.
 Last August, the government had granted infrastructure status to affordable rental
housing projects.
 Medical Colleges, Para Medical Training Institutes and Diagnostics Centres also received
infrastructure status.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q15. Which of the following have been added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO
world heritage sites?

  1. Maratha military architecture in Maharashtra
  2. Hire Bengal megalithic site in Karnataka
  3. Ganga ghats in Varanasi
  4. Satpura Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Six sites have been added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites.
 Six of the nine sites submitted by the Archaeological Survey of India had been accepted by
UNESCO for inclusion in the tentative list, which is a requirement before the final
nomination of any site.
 The recently-included proposals are the
o Maratha military architecture in Maharashtra,
o Hire Bengal megalithic site in Karnataka,
o Bhedaghat-Lametaghat of Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh.
o Ganga ghats in Varanasi,
o temples of Kancheepuram and
o Satpura Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
 These proposals will remain in tentative list for a year after which the government will
decide which one of them to push for in their final dossier to UNESCO, officials said.
 With the addition of these six sites, the UNESCO has 48 proposals in tentative list of India.
 As per Operational Guidelines, 2019, it is mandatory to put any monument/site on the
Tentative List (TL) before it is considered for the final nomination dossier.
 India has 48 sites in the TL as of now.
 As per rules, any country can submit the nomination dossier after one year of it being on
the TL.
 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.