16 SEPTEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to Permafrost, consider the following statements1. They cover more than 30% of world’s region.

2. These regions may not be always covered with snow.
3. If it thaws, there may be a chance of microbial outbreak.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 1 is not correct.
    Permafrost:
   o Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen – 32°F (0°C) or colder – for
   at least two years straight.
   o These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high
   mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes – near the North and South Poles.
   o Permafrost covers about 15% of the land area of the globe.
   o Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow.
   o Landscapes with large stretches of permafrost are often called tundra. The word
   tundra is a Finnish word referring to a treeless plain. Tundra is found at high
   latitudes and at high altitudes, where the permafrost has a very thin active layer.
   Concerns Regarding Melting Permafrost:
    Change from Carbon Storehouse to Carbon Emitters:
   o Some permafrost regions have changed from being a carbon storehouse to being
   places that are net emitters of carbon.
    Releasing New Bacteria or Viruses:
   o The environment now is so much more suitable than during the Ice Age for not just
   human life, but also the evolution or development of viruses and bacteria.
   o So, the chances of emerging new bacteria or viruses cannot be ignored.
   Q2. With reference to Oilseed Production in India, consider the following statements1. Groundnut account for nearly half of oilseed production in India.
4. India is the largest producer of oilseed in world.
5. India is net importer of oilseeds.
   Which of the above given statements are correct?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3
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   Solution: d)
   Explanation:
   All statements are correct.
    Major oilseeds include groundnut, linseed, sesamum, castor seed, rapeseed, mustard,
   sunflower and soyabean.
    Oil extracted from oilseeds is used in diet and as raw material for manufacturing paints,
   varnishes, hydrogenated oil, soaps, etc.
    Oil-cake which is the residue of oilseeds forms an important cattle-feed and manure.
    India has the largest area (18-20 % of the net sown area) and production of oilseeds in the
   world.
    There had been a gradual increase in area, production and yield of oilseeds, with the
   passage of time.
    The production of oilseeds has always fallen short of our demand and India has always
   been a net importer of oilseeds.
    There is a very little scope for bringing additional area under oilseeds. Increasing
   productivity is the only way to meet the domestic demand.
    Drylands of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra & Gujarat are the main producers of
   major oilseeds accounting for over two-third of the area and three-fourths of the
   production.
    Other producers include Andhra Pradesh, UP, Haryana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu (gives
   maximum yield in oil seeds) West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, etc.
   Production in 2017-18 (in Million Tonnes)
   Major oilseeds producing states Area – Million Hectares Production (MT)
   1 Madhya Pradesh 6.6 (27%) 7 (22.2%)
   2 Rajasthan 4.1 (16.7%) 6 (19.1%)
   3 Gujarat 2.8 (11.2%) 5.9 (18.7%)
   4 Maharashtra 4.2 (17.1%) 4.3 (13.6%)
   5 Uttar Pradesh 1.1 (4.4%) 1.2 (3.7%)
   All India 24.7 Mha 31.3 MT
    West Bengal, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Telangana are the
   other major producers of pulses.
   Groundnut
    Groundnut is the most important oilseed of India.
    It accounts for nearly half of the major oilseeds produced in India.
    Groundnut kernels are rich in proteins and vitamins and have high calorific value.
    It contains 40-50% oil which is used as edible oil or hydrogenated vanaspati.
    The oil is used for manufacturing margarine, medical emulsions, soap etc.
    Its oil cake is used as an important rich cattle feed.
    It is often a rotation crop because of its atmospheric nitrogen fixing abilities.
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   Q3. Which of the following statements are correct about Terai-Arc Landscape?
6. It is land stretch between River Yamuna and River Ganga.
7. It spreads across 3 states of India.
8. No Tiger Reserve or Elephant Corridors are found in this stretch.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 only
   c) 3 only
   d) 1 and 3 only
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 1 and 3 are not correct.
   Terai Arc Landscape
    It is an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river Bhagmati in the
   east.
    It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and the low
   lying hills of Nepal.
    It boasts of some of India’s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas such as
   Corbett Tiger Reserve (Uttarakhand), Rajaji National Park (Uttarakhand), Dudhwa Tiger
   Reserve (Uttar Pradesh), Valmiki Tiger Reserve (Bihar).
    The forests are home to three flagship species, the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris), the
   greater one horned rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) and the Asian elephant (Elephas
   maximus).
   Q4. Which of the following is not a unitary feature of Indian federalism?
   a) All India Services
   b) Independent Judiciary
   c) Integrated Audit Machinery
   d) Appointment of Governor
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Features of the Federal System of India
9. Dual government polity
10. Division of powers between various levels
11. Rigidity of constitution
12. Independence judiciary
13. Dual citizenship
14. Bicameralism
    Unitary Features of the Indian Union
15. The flexibility of the constitution – the constitution is a blend of flexibility and rigidity.
    Certain provisions of the constitution can be easily amended. In case the amendments
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    seek to change aspects of federalism in India, the provision to bring about such
    amendments is not easy. (Read about types of majorities in India Parliament using which
    amendments or certain other provisions are introduced.)
16. More power vests with the Centre – the constitution guarantees more powers with the
    Union List. On the Concurrent List subjects, the parliament can make laws that can override
    the laws made by a state legislature on some matters. The parliament can also make laws
    regarding certain subjects in the State List.
17. Unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha – the representation of the states in
    the upper house is based on the states’ populations. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31
    seats and Goa, 1 in the Rajya Sabha. In an ideal federal system, all the states should have
    equal representation.
    The executive is a part of the legislature – in India, the executive in both the centre and the states
    is a part of the legislature. This goes against the principle of division of powers between the different
    organs of the government.
    Q5. Which of the statements are correct about Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles?
18. They are more energy efficient than traditional combustion technologies.
19. They produce only water and heat as a by-product.
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Both statements are correct.
    Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle
    Mechanism: The FCEV combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current.
    Hydrogen + Oxygen = Electricity + Water Vapour
    FCEV engines are similar to the conventional internal combustion engines because they also rely on
    a constant supply of fuel (hydrogen) and oxygen.
    However, there are no moving parts in the fuel cell, so they are more efficient and reliable.
    Advantages:
20. FCEVs produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases (GHGs) and none of the air
    pollutants that cause health problems.
21. Fuel cells emit only heat and water as a byproduct and are far more energy-efficient than
    traditional combustion technologies.
22. There is a wide availability of resources for producing hydrogen.
    Disadvantages:
23. The process of making hydrogen needs energy, often from fossil fuel sources, which raises
    questions over hydrogen’s green credentials.
24. Handling of hydrogen is a safety concern because it is more explosive than petrol.
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    Q6. With reference to Organization of Islamic Cooperation, consider the following statements1. It is world’s second largest inter-governmental organization after United Nations.
25. India is an associate member of OIC.
    Which of the above given statements are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Statement 2 is not correct.
    Organisation of Islamic Cooperation
    OIC is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations with a
    membership of 57 states.
    India is not a member of the OIC.
    It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of
    the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people
    of the world.
    It was established upon a decision of the historical summit which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of
    Morocco, in 1969.
    Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
    Q7. Which of the following are correctly matched?
    Country Region Associated/Places seen in News
26. Bagram Afghanistan
27. Amami Islands Japan
28. Tigray Ethiopia
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1 only
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Bagram- Afghanistan
    Amami Islands- Archipelago of Japan
    Tigray – Ethiopia
    Q8. At present, which of the following are allowed for postal voting in India?
29. Members of Armed Forces
30. Persons employed under Government of India outside of India
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31. President
32. Vice-President
    Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2,3 and 4 only
    c) 1,2 and 4 only
    d) 1,2,3 and 4
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    What is postal voting?
    A restricted set of voters can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote
    remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer
    before counting.
    Who can avail this facility?
    Members of the armed forces like the Army, Navy and Air Force, members of the armed police
    force of a state (serving outside the state), government employees posted outside India and their
    spouses are entitled to vote only by post. In other words, they can’t vote in person. Voters under
    preventive detention can also vote only by post.
    Special voters such as the President of India, Vice President, Governors, Union Cabinet ministers,
    Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty have the option to vote by post. But
    they have to apply through a prescribed form to avail this facility.
    Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to Production Linked Incentive Scheme1. It aims to boost domestic production and cut down import bills.
33. Foreign Companies are excluded from this scheme.
34. This will make India absolutely resilient from Global Supply Disruptions.
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 2 only
    d) 1 only
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Statement 2 and 3 are not correct.
    About the PLI Scheme:
     In order to boost domestic manufacturing and cut down on import bills, the central
    government in March 2020 introduced a scheme that aims to give companies incentives
    on incremental sales from products manufactured in domestic units.
     Apart from inviting foreign companies to set shop in India, the scheme also aims to
    encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units.
     The Scheme has been approved for many sectors including electronic products, IT
    hardware, pharmaceuticals, automobiles and components, etc.
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     Eligibility for the Scheme:
    It is subject to achieving a minimum threshold of cumulative incremental investment and
    incremental sales of manufactured goods.
    The cumulative investment can be made at one go, subject to annual cumulative threshold as
    prescribed for four years being met.
    2019-20 will be treated as the base year for computation of cumulative incremental sales of
    manufactured goods net of taxes.
    Q10. Match the following places with their countryPorts Country
35. Hambantota Srilanka
36. Sabang Malaysia
37. Changi Singapore
38. Kyaukpyu. Myanmar
    Select the correct answer using code belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 3 and 4 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) 1,3 and 4 only
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Sabang Port, Indonesia: In 2018, India got the military access to Sabang Port which is located right
    at the entrance of Malacca Strait. This strait is one of the world’s famous choke point. A large chunk
    of trade and crude oil passes on to China through this region.
    Changi Naval Base, Singapore: In 2018, Prime Minister Modi signed an agreement with Singapore.
    The agreement has provided direct access to this base to the Indian Navy. While sailing through the
    South China Sea, the Indian Navy can refuel and rearm its ship through this base.
    The Hambantota Port, also known as the Magampura Mahinda Rajapaksa Port, is a maritime inland
    port located in Hambantota, Sri Lanka. It is constructed by the Sri Lankan Port Authority and mostly
    funded by EXIM bank of China.
    MYANMAR – China’s belt and road initiative in Myanmar is primarily concentrated on developing
    the Bay of Bengal port of Kyaukpyu.