16 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements about Greater Adjutant Stork:

1. It is classified as critically endangered on the International Union for
   Conservation of Nature’s Red List of threatened species.
2. There is only one known breeding ground of the bird, all over the world.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: d)
   Explanation:
   Greater Adjutant Storks
    The greater adjutant is a member of the stork family, Ciconiidae.
    It is classified as endangered on the International Union for Conservation
   of Nature’s Red List of threatened species and listed under Schedule IV of
   the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 1 is incorrect.
    There are only three known breeding grounds – one in Cambodia, two in
   India, in Assam and in Kadwa Diara of Bihar. 2 is incorrect.
    The greater adjutant is one of the most threatened stork species of the world
   and is widely considered to be a rare bird.
    Long despised and treated as a pest, this giant, ungainly bird is Endangered
   by habitat loss, with just 1,000 remaining by the 1990s.
    The global population of Greater Adjutant Storks is estimated as 800-1,200,
   most of them in Assam, where there have been many deaths after these
   scavenger birds ate plastic bags along with garbage.
   Q2. Consider the following statements:
3. Higher Gross Domestic Product necessarily shows greater well-being of the
   people of that country.
4. Gross Domestic Product gives a clear indication of the productive activity of a
   country.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 only
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   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: c)
   Explanation:
   Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of the value added created
   through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.
   As such, it also measures the income earned from that production, or the total
   amount spent on final goods and services (less imports).
   Issues with GDP
    GDP only counts goods that pass through official, organized markets, so
   it misses home production and black market activity. This is a big omission,
   particularly in developing countries where much of what’s consumed is
   produced at home (or obtained through barter). 2 is incorrect.
    GDP counts “bads” as well as “goods.” When an earthquake hits and
   requires rebuilding, GDP increases. When someone gets sick and money is
   spent on their care, it’s counted as part of GDP.
    GDP makes no adjustment for leisure time. Imagine two economies with
   identical standards of living, but in one economy the workday averages 12
   hours, while in the other it’s only eight.
    GDP doesn’t adjust for the distribution of goods. Again, imagine two
   economies, but this time one has a ruler who gets 90 percent of what’s
   produced, and everyone else subsists — barely — on what’s left over. In the
   second, the distribution is considerably more equitable. 1 is incorrect.
    GDP isn’t adjusted for pollution costs. If two economies have the same
   GDP per capita, but one has polluted air and water while the other doesn’t,
   well-being will be different but GDP per capita won’t capture it.
    GDP not accounting for poor socio-economic parameters of India: Even
   before the pandemic, the median household income in India was Rs 15,000
   per month. That means a family of four at the median income level lived on
   just Rs 125 per day per person for all their expenditure on food, clothing,
   housing, healthcare, festivals and more. Half of India lives with less than
   that.
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   o The bottom 25 per cent of households (about 300 million people in
   India) lived on an income of less than Rs 8,500 per month or Rs 70 per
   day per person.
   Q3. With reference to the human development, consider the following statements:
5. The concept of human development was solely developed by Nobel laureate
   Amartya Sen.
6. Life expectancy at birth, education and access to public employment are the
   three components of the Human Development Index.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: d)
   Explanation:
   The human development approach, developed by the economist Mahbub Ul
   Haq, is anchored in the Nobel laureate Amartya Sen’s work on human capabilities,
   often framed in terms of whether people are able to “be” and “do” desirable things
   in life. 1 is incorrect.
   Working with Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen and other gifted economists, in 1990
   Dr. Haq published the first Human Development Report, which was
   commissioned by the United Nations Development Programme.
   Measuring Human Development – The human development index (HDI) ranks the
   countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and
   access to resources. 2 is incorrect.
   These rankings are based on a score between 0 to 1 that a country earns from its
   record in the key areas of human development.
   Q4. Which of the following leaders accompanied Mahatma Gandhi on his visit to
   Champaran in 1917?
7. Rajendra Prasad
8. J.B. Kripalani
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9. Vallabhbhai Patel
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 1 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 3 only
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA (1917) : The peasantry on the indigo plantations in
   the district was excessively oppressed by European planters. They were compelled
   to grow indigo on at least 3/20th of their land and to sell it at prices fixed by
   the planters.
   Having heard of Gandhi’s campaigns in South Africa, several peasants of
   Champaran invited him to come and help them. He was accompanied by Babu
   Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Huq, J.B. Kripalani, Narhari Parekh and Mahadev
   Desai, Gandhiji reached Champaran in 1917. Vallabhbhai Patel did not
   accompany Gandhiji on his visit to Champaran.
   Q5. Who among the following is known as Kerala Gandhi, launched the Vaikom
   Satyagraha and also marched from Calicut to Payyannur in defiance of salt laws?
   a) K. Kelappan
   b) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
   c) M.N Roy
   d) C. Rajagopalachari
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   K. Kelappan, a Nair Congress leader, launched the Vaikom Satyagraha and
   marched from Calicut to Payyannur in defiance of salt laws.
   About Vaikom Satyagraha.
   Vaikom Satyagraha started as a regional, localised protest against untouchability.
   It, however, grew in significance, and is considered a pivotal event in the history of
   Kerala by historians, even leading to the Temple Entry Proclamation of 1936. The
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   heart of this protest was at the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple, where the upper caste
   was permitted to use a public road around it but the others were not.
   Q6. With reference to Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
10. It recommended an Indian Union with complete independence.
11. It proposed establishment of a constituent assembly after the war got over.
12. It gave provinces the right to secede from India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 and 3 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    The main proposals of the mission were as follows.
13. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free
    to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the
    United Nations and other international bodies. 1 is incorrect.
14. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to
    frame a new constitution. 2 is correct
15. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two
    conditions:
    (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate
    constitution and form a separate Union. 3 is correct.
    (ii) the new constitution making body and the British government would negotiate
    a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious
    minorities.
16. In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the
    governor-general’s powers would remain intact.
    Q7. Consider the following Central Acts:
17. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
18. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
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19. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
    From which of the acts given above, the Central Pollution Control Board derives its
    powers and functions?
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 1 and 3 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was
    constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of
    Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and
    functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
    It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of
    Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act,
20. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and
    Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
    Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the
    States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve
    the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
    Hence, from the given acts, CPCB derives its powers and functions from only the
    Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and the Air (Prevention
    and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
    Q8. Consider the following statements regarding E-Waste (Management) Rules,
    2016
21. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) has been exempted from the purview of these
    rules to enhance its manufacturing capacity
22. The Micro and Small industry sector as defined in Micro Small and Medium
    Developmental Act, 2006 has been brought under the purview of these rules.
23. Collection has now exclusively becomes Producer’s responsibility, which can set
    up collection centre or point or even can arrange buy back mechanism for such
    collection.
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    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Salient Features of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016
    Applicability- Extended to components, consumables, spares and parts of EEE in
    addition to equipment as listed in Schedule I. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL)
    and other mercury containing lamps brought under the purview of rules. 1 is
    incorrect
    Exemption- Exemption continues for micro enterprises; however small
    enterprises, which have been referred as one of the major source of generation of
    e-waste, have been included in the rules for responsibility as manufacturer,
    without burdening them with EPR responsibility as applicable to Producers. 2 is
    incorrect
    Collection Mechanism- Collection is now exclusively Producer’s responsibility,
    which can set up a collection centre or point or even arrange buy back mechanism
    for such collection.3 is correct
    Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Government-aided minority
    educational institutions in India:
24. Government cannot regulate the appointment of teachers in these institutions.
25. Right to Education Act does not apply to these institutions.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
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    The Supreme Court in a recent judgment has said that the Govt can regulate the
    appointment of teachers for ensuring excellence in minority institutes, it is not a
    violation of Article 30. An objection can certainly be raised if an unfavourable
    treatment is meted out to an educational institution established and administered
    by a minority.1 is incorrect.
    In the Pramati case, the bench of SC upheld the constitutional validity of the Right
    of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE) and exempted all
    minority institutions from the RTE. This is an expansion of the ambit of exemption
    which had limited it to unaided minority institutions. Minority institutions here
    refer to both religious and linguistic minorities, as referred to within the
    Constitution. 2 is correct.
    Q10. Peace forest Initiative recently seen in the news is launched by
    a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
    b) United Nation Environment Programme
    c) United Nation Convention to Combat Desertification
    d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    The UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the Government
    of the Republic of Korea Forest Service (KFS) have signed a Memorandum of
    Understanding (MoU) to establish the Peace Forest Initiative (PFI).
    The Initiative will support land and forest rehabilitation in post conflict areas to
    reduce peace and security challenges stemming from natural resource degradation.
    The PFI was initially launched on 10 September 2019 during the 14th
    Conference of the Parties to the UNCCD in New Delhi, India. In supporting
    needs assessments, the Initiative will engender collaboration, provide guidance,
    support transparency and support local parties to conflict to resolve their disputes
    and grievances.
    The PFI also aims to contribute to land degradation neutrality (LDN)
    implementation through partnerships that build peace and security.
    The PFI launch precedes the commencement of the UN Decade on Ecosystem
    Restoration 2021-2030.