12 JULY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to the Van Gujjars, consider the following statements:

1. These are the forest-dwelling nomadic communities inhabiting only in the
   state of Uttar Pradesh.
2. They pursue seasonal migration from the Terai-Bhabar and Siwalik region of
   Uttarakhand to the higher bugyals in the Western Himalayas.
   Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)
Explanation:
 Van Gujjars are the forest-dwelling nomadic community inhabiting the
foothills of Himalayan States such as Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and
Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 Usually, they migrate to the bugyals (grasslands) located in the upper
Himalayas with their buffaloes and return only at the end of monsoons to
their makeshift huts, deras, in the foothills.
 They traditionally practice buffalo husbandry; a family owns up to 25 heads
of buffaloes. They rely on buffaloes for milk, which gets them a good price in
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh markets.
 The Van Gujjars pursue seasonal migration from the Terai-Bhabar and
Siwalik region of Uttarakhand to the higher bugyals in the Western
Himalayas in summer and vice versa in winter. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

Q2. Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is often seen in the
news during the elections with reference to
a) conduct of exit poll and dissemination of their results.
b) seeking votes on grounds of religion.
c) indulging in paid news.
d) promote enmity or hatred between different classes of citizen

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Solution: a)
Explanation:
Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951: It prohibits conduct of
exit poll and dissemination of their results during the period mentioned therein,
i.e., the hour fixed for commencement of polls in the first phase and half hour after
the time fixed for close of poll for the last phase in all the States and Union
Territories.

Q3. The Global Environment Facility serves as a financial mechanism to which of
the following environmental conventions?

1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
2. United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
3. Minamata Convention on Mercury
4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   a) 2 and 3 only
   b) 1, 2 and 4 only
   c) 1, 3 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)
Explanation:
The Global Environment Facility was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth
Summit to help tackle our planet‘s most pressing environmental problems. Since
then, the GEF has provided over $17.9 billion in grants and mobilized an additional
$93.2 billion in co-financing for more than 4500 projects in 170 countries.
Today, the GEF is an international partnership of 183 countries, international
institutions, civil society organizations and the private sector that addresses global
environmental issues.
The GEF provides funding to assist developing countries in meeting the objectives
of international environmental conventions.
The GEF serves as financial mechanism to five conventions, which are
 UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),
 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

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 (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs),
 UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and
 Minamata Convention on Mercury.
The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol, supports the
implementation of the Protocol in Countries with Economies in Transition.

Q4. Consider the following statement regarding PM-WANI(Prime Minister – Wi-fi
Access Network Interface).

1. It aims to provide all PDS shops with Wi-Fi-access to provide seamless
   transactions.
2. The public network will be set up by the PDOA’s to provide Wi-Fi-service
   through the PDO’s spread throughout the country.
3. It was recommended by TRAI (Telecom regulatory Authority of India) in the
   first place.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct.
The public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface, which will be called ‘PM-WANI’, was
first recommended by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in
2017.
PM-WANI: This will involve multiple players, including PDOs, PDOAs, app
providers, and a central registry. PM-WANI infrastructure can be structured in the
form of a pyramid.
Need for a Public Wi-Fi Network in India:
 To increase the proliferation of internet services in the country.
 With PDOs – which will basically be small retail outlets across the length and
breadth of the country – last mile connectivity is being aimed at.
 To offer a cost-effective option for the common man.

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 Even in urban areas with sufficient mobile data coverage, the mobile internet
tariffs are bound to increase.
 To achieve the ‘Digital India’ vision.
 From 2015 to June of 2020, India grew from 302 million internet subscribers
to 750 million. That is a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 20%,
making India one of the fastest growing internet markets in the world.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Seaweeds-

1. Out of total global seaweed production, India’ share is more than 10 %.
2. They could be used to create bio-fuels.
3. They help in carbon sequestration.
4. China is the largest producer of seaweed in the world.
   Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
   a) 1,2 and 4 only
   b) 1,2 and 3 only
   c) 3 only
   d) 1 only

Solution: d)
Explanation:
SEAWEEDS
Out of the global seaweed production of ~ 32 million tons fresh weight valued
around 12 billion US dollars. China produces ~57 %, Indonesia ~28% followed by
South Korea, whereas India is having a mere share of ~0.01-0.02%. Despite
several advantages, commercial seaweeds cultivation has not been taken place in
the country at an appropriate scale, as being practiced in South-East Asian
countries.
 By an estimate, if seaweed cultivation is done in 10 million hectares or 5%
of the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) area of India, it can
 Provide employment to 50 million people.
 Set up a new seaweed industry.
 Contribute to national Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
 Enhance ocean productivity.
 Abate algal blooms.

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 Sequester millions of tons CO2.
 Could produce bioethanol of 6.6 billion litres.

Q6. “NASAMS” have been frequently seen in news is related to-
a) Anti-Missile Defence System

b) A warship vessel
c) Nuclear Submarine
d) Artillery Gun

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Integrated Air Defence Weapon System
 The Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) is called the National
Advanced Surface to Air Missile System (NASAMS-II).
 It is an upgraded version of the NASAMS developed by the US firm Raytheon
in partnership with Kongsberg Defence & Aerospace of Norway.
 The IADWS system provides integrated air missile defence and is currently
deployed around Washington, DC.

 It includes launchers, targeting and guidance systems, advanced medium-
range air-to-air missile (AMRAAM) and Stinger missiles, 3D Sentinel

radars, fire-distribution centres and command-and-control units.
 The US has recently approved the sale of an Integrated Air Defence Weapon
System (IADWS) to India at an estimated cost of $1.9 billion.
 The objective of the deal is to modernise India’s armed forces and to expand
its existing air defence architecture to counter threats posed by air attacks.

Q7. Which of the following is/are recommendations of MS Swaminathan
Commission?

1. Distribution of Ceiling Surplus and Waste Lands
2. Shifting agriculture from state list to concurrent list.
3. Establish Land -Use Advisory Service

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)
Explanation:
All are correct.
 M.S. Swaminathan-headed National Commission on Farmers in his fifth
and final report submitted in October 2006 has recommended shifting
agriculture from the State List to the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
o This would allow the Union government to have a greater and a
relatively more decisive say in the matters related to agriculture and
farmers without majorly diluting the powers of the state governments.

Key recommendations of the Commission:
 Distribute ceiling-surplus and wasteland among farmers, prevent the
non-agricultural use of farmland, secure grazing rights and seasonal forest
access to forest tribals.
 Establish a National Land Use Advisory Service, which would link land

use decisions with ecological and marketing factors of season and geography-
specific basis.

 Reform irrigation resources and its distribution among farmers. Use
rainwater harvesting, water level recharging to increase water supply.
 Spread outreach of institutional credit by reducing crop loan interest
rates, provide a moratorium on debt recovery, agricultural risk fund and a
separate Kisan Credit Card for women farmers.
 To address the growing farmer suicides, provide affordable health
insurance at primary health centres in rural areas. The
recommendations included an extension of national rural health mission to
suicide-prone areas. Restructuring of microfinance policies, covering all
crops by insurance and social security net for support were also sought.
 Give farmers a minimum support price at 50% profit above the cost of
production classified as C2 by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP).

Q8. Consider the following statements:

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1. The Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine uses a harmless virus called an adenovirus
   to carry genetic material from SARS-CoV-2 into cells.
2. Covid-19 vaccine booster shots are only for the fully-vaccinated persons.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct
 The Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine uses a harmless virus called
an adenovirus to carry genetic material from SARS-CoV-2 into cells.
o Vaccines using this technology have a good track record of inducing
strong T-cell responses, whereas vaccines using messenger RNA,
such as Pfizer’s, have proved “exceptionally good” at inducing high
levels of antibodies.

 A booster shot is a means of strengthening one’s immune system against
a particular pathogen.
 These shots are only for the fully-vaccinated.
 The vaccine contains weakened forms of the disease-causing virus or
bacteria, or it may be made of an altered genetic “blueprint” for the germ that
can make one sick.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Authorised Economic Operator (AEO)
Programme:

1. AEO is a programme under the guidance of the World Customs Organization
   (WCO) SAFE Framework.
2. It is a mandatory compliance programme.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2

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d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme:
 AEO is a programme under the guidance of the World Customs Organization
(WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate Global Trade. 1
is correct.
 The programme aims to enhance international supply chain security and
facilitate the movement of legitimate goods.
 The AEO encompasses various players in the International supply chain.
 Under this programme, an entity engaged in international trade is approved
by WCO as compliant with supply chain security standards and granted AEO
status & certain benefits.
 It is a voluntary compliance programme. 2 is incorrect.

Q10. Consider the following statements about Lok Sabha speaker:

1. The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the process for the
   election of Lok Sabha speaker.
2. The House can remove the Speaker through a resolution passed by an
   effective majority.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct.
 Lok Sabha Speaker:
o Article 93 for Lok Sabha and Article 178 for state Assemblies
state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be”, choose two of its
members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

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o The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the
process for these elections.
o It leaves it to the legislatures to decide how to hold these
elections. The House can remove the Speaker through a resolution
passed by an effective majority which means more than 50% of
the total strength needs to vote for removing the Speaker.
o This is done as per Articles 94 and 96.
o The Speaker can also be removed on getting disqualified from being a
Lok Sabha member under sections 7 and 8 of the Representation
of the People Act, 1951.

Q11. What is the meaning of the term ‘Learning Poverty’ sometimes seen in the
news?
a) the percentage of 10-year-olds who cannot read and understand a simple story
b) the percentage of people aged seven and above who cannot read or write with
understanding in any language
c) the percentage of people aged seven and above who cannot read or write with
understanding in Hindi language only
d) a new method of determining poverty developed by United Nations

Solution: a)
Explanation:
The World Bank recently introduced an ambitious new Learning Target, which aims
to cut by at least half the global rate of Learning Poverty by 2030. Learning Poverty
is defined as the percentage of 10-year-olds who cannot read and understand
a simple story.

Q12. Consider the following statements about SPARSH:

1. It is an integrated system for the welfare of women and children.
2. It is launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2

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d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Both statements are incorrect.
Recently, the Ministry of Defence has implemented SPARSH (System for Pension
Administration Raksha).
It is an integrated system for automation of sanction and disbursement of defence
pension.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.
2. Zika Virus Disease is associated with microcephaly.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.
Zika Virus Disease is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes
(AM), mainly Aedes aegypti.
Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with
microcephaly (smaller than normal head size)

Q14. Consider the following statements-

1. Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on existing tax.
2. It is not shared with state government whereas the Cess is shared with
   backward states.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 only

b) 2 only

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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)
Explanation:
Difference between Surcharge and Cess:
 Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on existing tax. The main
surcharges are on personal income tax (on high income slabs and on super
rich) and on corporate income tax. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Despite both are not shareable with state governments, surcharge can be
kept with the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) and spent like any other taxes,
the cess should be kept as a separate fund after allocating to CFI and can be
spent only for a specific purpose. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
 A surcharge is discussed under Article 270 and 271 of the Indian
Constitution.
 Unlike a cess, which is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need,
surcharge is usually permanent in nature.

Q15. Islām Qala, known historically as Kafir Qala, is a border town in:
a) Iran
b) Pakistan
c) Afghanistan
d) Syria

Solution: c)
Explanation:
 Islām Qala, known historically as Kafir Qala, is a border town in the western
Herat province of Afghanistan, near the Afghanistan–Iran border.
 It is the official entry by land from neighbouring Tay bad, Iran.
 It plays an important role when it comes to the economy of Afghanistan
because a lot of trade between Afghanistan and other countries passes
through this town.
 The Taliban have captured a major border crossing between Afghanistan and
Iran. They captured Islam Qala crossing which is one of the biggest trade

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gateways into Iran, generating estimated USD 20 million monthly revenue
for the government.

Q16. With reference to the ‘Exercise Kavach’, consider the following statements:

1. It will be conducted under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command
   (ANC).
2. The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) is the only Joint Forces Command
   of the country.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct.
A large scale Joint Military exercise ‘Exercise Kavach’ involving assets of Indian
Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force and Indian Coast Guard is being conducted
in the coming week under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC)
which is the only joint-command forces in the country.
 The exercise involves synergised application of maritime surveillance assets,
coordinated air and maritime strikes, air defence, submarine and landing
operations.
 Concurrently Joint Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
exercise involving various technical, electronic and human intelligence from
three services will be conducted.

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding small savings:

1. Interest rate on small savings is determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) is a part of the Public Account of India.
3. Unlike Central and State governments, Union Territories cannot utilise funds
   from the NSSF.
   Which of the following statements are not correct?

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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 3 are not correct.
 Interest rate on small savings schemes are determined by the Central
government. The interest rates for SSSs are announced by the Department
of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance on quarterly basis.
 National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was established in 1999. It is a part of
the Public Account of India. Public Account of India accounts for flows for
those transactions where the government is acting as a banker.
 Central government, State governments as well as Union Territories with a
Legislative Assembly can utilize funds from the National Small Savings Fund.

Q18. Consider the following about Biopesticides-

1. They can be derived from plants only.
2. Bacillus thuringiensis are biopesticides.
   Which of the statements are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived from such natural materials as
animals, plants, bacteria, and certain minerals. For example, canola oil and baking
soda have pesticidal applications and are considered biopesticides. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
The most widely used microbial pesticides are subspecies and strains of Bacillus
thuringiensis, or Bt. Each strain of this bacterium produces a different mix of

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proteins and specifically kills one or a few related species of insect larvae. Bt
ingredients control moth larvae found on plants, other Bt ingredients are specific
for larvae of flies and mosquitoes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q19. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Soil
Health Cards (SHCs) issued to the farmers?

1. It informs farmers about the appropriate dosage of nutrients required to
   improve soil health and fertility.
2. Under the scheme, it is mandatory to undertake GPS based soil sample
   collection.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
The Soil Health Card scheme was launched in February 2015 in Rajasthan. The
Soil Health Card mobile App was launched recently to help the farmers. The app
will benefit field-level workers as it will automatically capture GIS coordinates while
registering sample details at the time of sample collection in the field and indicate
the location from where the sample has been collected.
SHC informs farmers about the nutrients status of the soils along with the
recommendation on the appropriate dosage of nutrients to improve soil health and
fertility. A farm gets the soil card once in every 2 years so that nutrients deficiency
can be regularly detected and improved. Statement 1 is correct.
The key features of Soil Health Card include a uniform approach to collect samples
and test them in the laboratory, covering all the land in the country and renew
SHC every two years. This scheme is being implemented in collaboration with State
Governments. Statement 2 is not correct.

Q20. Which of the following components are considered in order to declare a
country as “Food Secure”?

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1. Availability of Food
2. Accessibility of Food
3. Absorption Utility of Food
4. Absorption Stability of Food

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1,2 and 3

b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4

Solution: b)
Explanation:
According to Food and Agriculture Organization, the four pillars of food security
are

1. availability,
2. access,
3. utilization and
4. stability.