06 JUNE CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. The Kedarnath Singh case, 1962 is in the news. It is related to:
a) Section 124A of the IPC
b) Section 377 of the IPC
c) Article 14
d) Article 370

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The Supreme Court quashed case of sedition filed against a journalist for allegedly making
remarks against the Prime Minister.The court also reiterated the principles in the
landmark case on sedition — Kedar Nath Singh v Union of India (1962).
Section 124A of the IPC defines sedition. It makes some kinds of speech or expression
a criminal offence punishable with a maximum sentence of life imprisonment.
The Kedar Nath Singh guidelines
 In the landmark 1962 Kedar Nath Singh case, the Supreme Court upheld the
constitutional validity of the sedition law.
 The court held that unless accompanied by an incitement or call for violence,
criticism of the government cannot be labelled sedition.
 Seven principles in the Kedar Nath Singh ruling specify situations in which the
charge of sedition cannot be applied.
o The expression “ ‘the Government established by law’ has to be
distinguished from the persons for the time being engaged in carrying
on the administration.
 ‘Government established by law’ is the visible symbol of the State.
 The very existence of the State will be in jeopardy if the Government
established by law is subverted.”
o “Any acts within the meaning of Section 124-A which have the effect of
subverting the Government by bringing that Government into contempt or
hatred, or creating disaffection against it, would be within the penal statute
because the feeling of disloyalty to the Government established by law or
enmity to it imports the idea of tendency to public disorder by the use of
actual violence or incitement to violence.”
o Genuine criticism and excitement of violence: “A citizen has a right to say
or write whatever he likes about the Government.
 Condition: But he should not incite people to violence against the
Government established by law or with the intention of creating public
disorder.”
o Creating disorder/ disturbing public peace: If the words, written or spoken
can create public disorder or disturbance of law and order then the sedition
law will be applicable.
Limiting the use of law: Only activities involving incitement to violence or intention or
tendency to create public disorder or cause disturbance of public peace comes under the
ambit of Sedition law.”

Q2. Teesta River Dispute is a long pending issue between
a) India and Nepal
b) India and Bangladesh
c) India and Myanmar
d) India and Sri Lanka

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Teesta Water dispute is a dispute on Teesta river sharing agreement between India and
Bangladesh. Bangladesh has sought an “equitable” distribution of Teesta waters from
India, on the lines of the Ganga Water Treaty of 1996, but to no avail.

Q3. Corbevax is in the news. It is a
a) mRNA vaccine
b) Inactivated vaccine
c) Live-attenuated vaccines
d) Recombinant protein sub-unit vaccine

Solution: d)

Explanation:
About Corbevax
 Corbevax is a “recombinant protein sub-unit” vaccine.
o It is made up of a specific part of SARS-CoV-2 — the spike protein on the
virus’s surface.
o The spike protein allows the virus to enter the cells in the body so that it can
replicate and cause disease.
 Developing immunity: However, when this protein alone is given to the body, it is
not expected to be harmful as the rest of the virus is absent.
o The body is expected to develop an immune response against the injected
spike protein.
 Manufactured by: It is indigenously produced by Hyderabad-based company
Biological E.
o Corbevax’s beginnings can be traced to the Baylor College of Medicine’s
National School of Tropical Medicine.
 Dosage: Like most other Covid-19 vaccines, Corbevax is administered in two doses.
o However, as it is made using a low-cost platform, it is also expected to be
among the cheapest available in the country.

Q4. The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in
a) 10th Conference of Parties (COP) to the Convention on Biological Diversity
b) 10th Conference of Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC
c) Paris CoP
d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Explanation:
At the 2010 10th Conference of Parties (COP) to the Convention on Biological Diversity in
October in Nagoya, Japan, the Nagoya Protocol was adopted.
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing
of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity, also
known as the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing is a 2010 supplementary
agreement to the 1992 Convention on Biological Diversity.

Q5. NASA’s new two missions DAVINCI+ and VERITAS will study which of the planet?
a) Mars
b) Mercury
c) Jupiter
d) Venus

Solution: d)

Explanation:
NASA has selected two missions to the planet Venus, Earth’s nearest neighbour.
The missions are called DAVINCI+ and VERITAS and will be launched between 2028-2030.
DAVINCI+ is short for ‘Deep Atmosphere Venus Investigation of Noble gases, Chemistry,
and Imaging’ and is the first US-led mission to the planet’s atmosphere since 1978.
o It will try to understand Venus’ composition to see how the planet formed and evolved.
o This mission also consists of a descent sphere that will pass through the planet’s thick
atmosphere and make observations and take measurements of noble gases and other
elements.
o Significantly, this mission will also try to return the first high resolution photographs of a
geological feature that is unique to Venus. This feature, which is called “tesserae” may be
comparable to Earth’s continents. The presence of tesseraes may suggest that Venus has
tectonic plates like Earth.
 The second mission called VERITAS is short for ‘Venus Emissivity, Radio Science, InSAR,
Topography, and Spectroscopy’ and will map the planet’s surface to determine its geologic
history and understand the reasons why it developed so differently from Earth.
 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q6. With reference to the SDG India Index and Dashboard 2020–21, consider the
following statements:

1. India saw significant improvement in the SDGs related to clean energy, urban
   development, Health, eradication of poverty and hunger in 2020.
2. Among states, Sikkim retained its position at the top of the rankings in the third edition
   of the index.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The third edition of the SDG India Index and Dashboard 2020–21 was released by NITI
Aayog. NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson Dr Rajiv Kumar launched the report titled, SDG India
Index and Dashboard 2020–21: Partnerships in the Decade of Action.
 The country’s overall SDG score improved by 6 points—from 60 in 2019 to 66 in 2020–21.
 This improvement is largely driven by exemplary country-wide performance in Goal 6
(Clean Water and Sanitation) and Goal 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), where the
composite Goal scores are 83 and 92, respectively.
 India saw significant improvement in the SDGs related to clean energy, urban
development, Health, eradication of poverty and hunger in 2020.
 However, there has been a major decline in the areas of industry, innovation and
infrastructure as well as decent work and economic growth. The country’s score on the
SDG related to industry and infrastructure dropped 10 points to 55, while the scores on
decent work dropped three points to 61.
 The Clean Water and Sanitation SDG also saw a five-point drop.
States rankings
 Currently, there are no states in the aspirant and achiever category; 15 states/UTs are in
the performer category and 22 states/UTs in the front runner category.
 Among states, Kerala retained its position at the top of the rankings in the third edition of
the index, with a score of 75, followed by Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh, both scoring

72. At the other end of the scale, Bihar, Jharkhand and Assam were the worst performing
    States.
     Chandigarh maintained its top spot among the UTs with a score of 79, followed by Delhi
    (68).
     Mizoram, Haryana, and Uttarakhand are the top gainers in 2020–21 in terms of
    improvement in score from 2019, with an increase of 12, 10 and 8 points, respectively.
     Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q7. With reference to the PLI Scheme for telecom & Networking equipment, consider
the following statements:

1. NABARD has been appointed as the Project Management Agency (PMA) for the PLI
   scheme.
2. The Scheme is open to both MSME and Non-MSME Companies including Domestic and
   Global Companies.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
On 3rd June 2021, Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has issued Operational
Guidelines for PLI Scheme for telecom & Networking equipment. Earlier, DoT notified the
scheme in February 2021.
 Objective: To make India a global manufacturing hub for telecom and networking
products by boosting domestic manufacturing, investments and exports in the sector.
 Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has been appointed as the Project
Management Agency (PMA) for the PLI scheme.
 The scheme will be effective from 1st April, 2021. The support under the Scheme shall be
provided for a period of five (5) years, i.e. from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26.
 Funding: The PLI Scheme will be implemented within the overall financial limits of ₹
12,195 Crores only over a period of 5 years. For MSME category, financial allocation will
be ₹1000 Crores.
 Eligibility:

1. The Scheme is open to both MSME and Non-MSME Companies including Domestic and
   Global Companies.
2. The Scheme stipulates a minimum investment threshold of ₹ 10 Crores for MSME and ₹
   100 Crores for non MSME applicants. Land and building cost will not be counted as
   investment.
    Expected benefits: It is estimated that full utilisation of the Scheme funds is likely to lead
   to incremental production of around ₹ 2.4 Lakh Crores with exports of around ₹ 2 Lakh
   Crores over 5 years. It is also expected that the Scheme will bring investment of around ₹
   3,000 crore.
   Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q8. With reference to the operation Sagar Aaraksha-II, consider the following
statements:

1. Sagar Aaraksha-II was a coordinated joint operation between India and Sri Lanka to
   rescue fisherman from the fury of Cyclone Tauktae
2. The Indian Coast Guard is an active member of South Asia Co-operative Environment
   Programme (SACEP).
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Indian Coast Guard (ICG), in coordination with Sri Lankan authorities, has been tirelessly
engaged in fighting a major fire onboard the Chemical laden container vessel MV X-Press
Pearl anchored off Colombo since 25 May 2021.
 The coordinated joint operation between India and Sri Lanka undertaken to respond to
potential environmental danger has been christened as Sagar Aaraksha-II.
 Indian Coast Guard ships, including the specialised pollution response vessel Samudra
Prahari and offshore patrol vessel Vajra are standby in vicinity to respond to the
developing situation.
 The ICG being an active member of South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme
(SACEP) remains committed to its responsibility of safeguarding of the ocean environment
in the region.
International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG)
 The vessel when caught with fire was carrying 1486 containers containing chemical cargo
classified as International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG).
 Among other chemicals, the IMDG cargo consisted of highly inflammable Nitric Acid,
Methanol, Methyl Acetate, Sodium Hydroxide and Polystyrene beads.
 Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q9. SAGE (Seniorcare Aging Growth Engine) initiative and SAGE portal to support
India’s elderly persons, recently seen in news, is an initiative of:
a) NITI Aayog
b) Union Ministry of social Justice and Empowerment
c) HelpAge India
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, launched the SAGE (Seniorcare Aging
Growth Engine) initiative and SAGE portal to support India’s elderly persons.
 The SAGE portal will be a “one-stop access” of elderly care products and services by
credible start-ups.
 The SAGE portal will be opened for applications from 5th June, 2021 onwards.
 The start-ups selected under SAGE will be those which will provide new innovative
products and services to elderly persons in various areas like health, travel, finance, legal,
housing, food among others.
 The SAGE portal has been prepared and finalised in record time by Mr. Chandrasekhar
Buddha, CEO, NEAT, M/o Education along with Dr. Elengovan, Assistant Innovation
Director, M/o Education.
 The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment will act as a facilitator for this scheme.
 A fund of uptoRs.1 crore as one-time equity will be granted to each selected start-up.

1. An amount of Rs 100 crore has been assigned for the promotion of the silver economy.
2. An allocation of Rs 25 crores has been made for the SAGE project in the current financial
   year i.e 2021-22.
   Statistics
    India’s elderly population is on the rise, and as per surveys, the share of elders, as a
   percentage of the total population in the country, is expected to increase from around 7.5%
   in 2001 to almost 12.5% by 2026, and surpass 19.5% by 2050.
    Accordingly, there is an urgent need to create a more robust elder care ecosystem in India
    Earlier a Senior Citizen Welfare Fund was started in 2016.
   Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q10. Anoop Satpathy committee, recently seen in news, is related to:
a) Privatization of Banks
b) Minimum Wages and National Floor Minimum Wages
c) Data Privacy
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Ministry of Labour & Employment has constituted the Expert Group to provide
recommendations to the government on fixation of Minimum Wages and National Floor
Minimum Wages.
 The Group has been constituted for a period of three years from the date of notification.
 The Expert Group is chaired by Prof Ajit Mishra, Director, Institute of Economic Growth.
Present status
 The current floor wage, which was fixed in 2017, is at Rs 176 a day, but some states have
minimum wages lower than it.
 Under the Code on Wages, which is yet to be enforced, a National Floor Level Minimum
Wage will be set by the Centre to be revised every five years, while states will fix minimum
wages for their regions, which cannot be lower than the floor wage.
Anoop Satpathy committee
 This is the second expert committee on minimum wages formed by the government within
the last two years.
 The earlier panel, headed by Anoop Satpathy, Fellow, VV Giri National Labour Institute,
was set up by the ministry on January 17, 2018, to determine methodology for fixing
national minimum wage.
 The recommendations, which weren’t accepted by the Centre, included setting the national
floor wage at Rs 375 per day (Rs 9,750 per month) as per July 2018 prices.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.