05 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following Statements

1. ‘Public order’ & ‘Police’ figure as entry 1 & 2 respectively, in list II State list in the 7th schedule of over constitution, thereby making state governments primarily responsible for maintaining public order.
2. Article 365 of the constitution enjoys upon the union to protect every state against external aggression & internal disturbance & thereby to ensure that the govt. is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Explanation:

‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’

• ‘Public order’ & ‘Police’ figure as entry 1 & 2 respectively, in list II (State list) in the 7th schedule of over constitution, thereby making state govts. primarily responsible for maintaining public order.
• The Police Act, 1861 is still the basic instrument governing the functioning of the Indian Police.
• Under the Act, the IG of Police (DGP) is the head of a state police.
• Besides, other laws like the IPC of 1862, the Indian Evidence ACT (IEA) of 1872 & the crpc of 1937 also govern the functioning of police.

Union government’s role

• While public order and police are under the state list, the state government may request the Union government to make available armed forces to help restore public order.
• Article 355 of the constitution enjoys upon the union to protect every state against external aggression & internal disturbance & thereby to ensure that the govt. is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution.
• Even in circumstances where public disorder is not so serious as to fall in the category of an “internal disturbance” as defined in Article 355 of the Constitution, the Union Government may accede to the request.
• But, as per CrPC 130, except for the limited purpose of dispersing an “unlawful assembly” and arresting its members, neither the state government nor any authority under it has been conferred by the Constitution any legal right to call the armed forces while dealing with a public disorder or “internal disturbance”.
• Also, the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution states that use of the armed forces in the maintenance of public order is outside the purview of the states.

Q2. Katchatheevu island is a disputed area between India and

a) Pakistan

b) Sri Lanka

c) Bangladesh

d) Myanmar

Solution: b)

Explanation:

Fishermen issue between India and Sri Lanka

• Tamil fishermen had traditional fishing rights of uninhabited Katchatheevu island for centuries.
• However, in 1974, the island was ceded to Sri Lanka after an agreement was signed between the two countries without consulting the Tamil Nadu government.
• The agreement allows Indian fishermen “access to Katchatheevu for rest, for drying of nests and for the annual St Anthony’s festival” but it did not ensure the traditional fishing rights.
• The agreement forced Indian fishermen to restrict themselves to a meagre area in their fishing forays.
• Indian boats have been fishing in the troubled waters for centuries and had a free run of the Bay of Bengal, Palk Bay and the Gulf of Mannar until 1974 and 1976 when treaties were signed between the two countries to demarcate International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL).

Q3. Consider the following Statements

1. The G7 or ‘Group of Seven’ consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
2. The decisions taken by leaders during annual summits are non-binding.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:

Group of Seven – G7

• The G7 or ‘Group of Seven’ consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• It is an intergovernmental organisation that was formed in 1975 as an informal forum to discuss pressing world issues.
• Initially it focussed on economic issues but later it focussed on the several challenges such as the oil crashes of the 1970s, terrorism, arms control, and drug trafficking,etc.
• The group does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters.
• The decisions taken by leaders during annual summits are non-binding.
• The G7 nations meet at annual summits that are presided over by leaders of member countries on a rotational basis.
• The G7 was known as the ‘G8’ for several years after the original seven were joined by Russia in 1997.
• The Group returned to being called G7 after Russia was expelled as a member in 2014 following the latter’s annexation of the Crimea region of Ukraine.

Q4. Consider the following Statements

1. MFI is an organization that offers financial services to low income populations.
2. In India, all loans that are below Rs.1 lakh can be considered as microloans.

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Explanation:

Microfinance Institutions and Associated issues

• MFI is an organization that offers financial services to low income populations.
• These services include microloans, microsavings and microinsurance.
• MFIs are financial companies that provide small loans to people who do not have any access to banking facilities.
• The definition of “small loans” varies between countries. In India, all loans that are below Rs.1 lakh can be considered as microloans.
• In most cases the so-called interest rates are lower than those charged by normal banks, certain rivals of this concept accuse microfinance entities of creating gain by manipulating the poor people’s money.
• Non Banking Finance Company (NBFC)-MFIs in India are regulated by The Non-Banking Financial Company -Micro Finance Institutions (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2011 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Q5. Which of the following laws are the basis for New Industrial Relations Code?

1. The Trade Unions Act, 1926
2. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
3. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Explanation:

New Industrial Relations Code

• Three Codes on labour law were passed by Parliament in September 2020, amid strident criticism and vociferous protests by many trade unions.
• Hailed by industry as a much-needed reform and rationalisation of labour laws, the Codes on industrial relations, social security, occupational safety, health and working conditions amalgamate and replace several diverse laws on the subject. In 2019, a separate Code on Wages was enacted.
• The Codes enacted now are modified versions of the Industrial Relations Code Bill introduced in 2019.
• Among these, the Industrial Relations Code is touted as one that would energise industry and spur economic activity, as it aims to free employees from the constraints of earlier labour laws.

Main features of the Industrial Relations Code

• The Industrial Relations Code combines the features of three erstwhile laws
• The Trade Unions Act, 1926,
• The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and
• The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• It defines ‘workers’ to include, besides all persons employed in a skilled or unskilled, manual, technical, operational and clerical capacity, supervisory staff drawing up to ₹18,000 a month as salary.
• It introduces ‘fixed term employment’, giving employers the flexibility to hire workers based on requirement through a written contract.
• Fixed term employees should be treated on a par with permanent workers in terms of hours of work, wages, allowances and other benefits, including statutory benefits such as gratuity.
• The Code says any establishment that employs 300 or more workers must prepare standing orders relating to classification of workers, manner of intimating to them periods and hours of work, holidays, pay days etc, shifts, attendance, conditions for leave, termination of employment, or suspension, besides the means available for redress of grievances.
• Earlier, the 2019 Bill applied this to units with 100 employees or more. The threshold has been raised to 300 in the 2020 Code.
• It confers on the ‘appropriate Government’, that is the Centre or the State governments, the power to exempt, with or without conditions, any industrial establishment or class of industrial establishments from all or any of the provisions of the Code, if it is satisfied that adequate provisions exist to fulfil its objectives.

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. The atmosphere has 78 percent nitrogen, 21 percent oxygen and 1 percent
   other gases.
2. An oxygen concentrator takes the ambient air and filters the oxygen from
   nitrogen.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Both statements are correct
 Oxygen concentrators are medical devices that assist people who have a
low level of oxygen in their blood.
 They are powered by plugging the device into an electrical outlet or by using
a battery.
 These are devices that concentrate the oxygen from ambient air.
 The atmosphere has 78 per cent nitrogen, 21 per cent oxygen and 1 per
cent other gases.
 An oxygen concentrator takes the ambient air and filters the oxygen from
nitrogen.
 Then the device releases the nitrogen back into the air and collects the
oxygen, dispensing it to the patient through the pressure valve.
The oxygen that is concentrated in an oxygen concentrator holds 90 to 95 per
cent purity.

Q7. The regional coalition known as “Quad” recently seen in news doesn’t
include which country
a) India
b) Germany
c) Australia
d) U.S

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD, also known as the Quad) is an informal
strategic dialogue between the United States, Japan, Australia and India that is
maintained by talks between member countries.

Q8. With reference to the India-United Kingdom Virtual Summit, consider the
following statements:

1. An ambitious ‘Roadmap 2030’ was adopted at the Summit to elevate bilateral
   ties to a ‘Comprehensive Strategic Partnership’.
2. A new India-UK ‘Global Innovation Partnership’ was announced that aims to
   support the transfer of inclusive Indian innovations to select developing countries,
   starting with Africa.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and Boris Johnson, Prime Minister of the
United Kingdom held a Virtual Summit.

1. An ambitious ‘Roadmap 2030’ was adopted at the Summit to elevate
   bilateral ties to a ‘Comprehensive Strategic Partnership’. The Roadmap will pave
   the way for a deeper and stronger engagement over the next ten years in the key
   areas of people to people contacts, trade and economy, defence and security,
   climate action and health.
2. The two Prime Ministers launched an ‘Enhanced Trade Partnership’
   (ETP) which sets an ambitious target of more than doubling bilateral trade by
3. As part of the ETP, India and the UK agreed on a roadmap to negotiate a
   comprehensive and balanced FTA, including consideration of an Interim Trade
   Agreement for delivering early gains.
4. The UK is India’s second largest partner in research and innovation
   collaborations. A new India-UK ‘Global Innovation Partnership’ was announced
   at the Virtual Summit that aims to support the transfer of inclusive Indian
   innovations to select developing countries, starting with Africa.
5. India and the UK launched a comprehensive partnership on migration
   and mobility that will facilitate greater opportunities for the mobility of students
   and professionals between the two countries.
6. Both sides agreed to enhance cooperation on new and emerging technologies,
   including Digital and ICT products, and work on supply chain resilience.
7. They also agreed to strengthen defence and security ties, including in the
   maritime, counter-terrorism and cyberspace domains.
   Hence both statements are correct.

Q9. With reference to the 5G technology, consider the following statements:

1. Conducting trials for use and applications of 5G technology is not allowed in
   India.
2. The 5Gi technology has been developed by Cisco Systems.
3. 5G works only in mid and high frequency spectrum.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   a) 1, 2 and 3
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Government of India approved
permissions to Telecom Service Providers (TSPs) for conducting trials for use and
applications of 5G technology. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
 The applicant TSPs include Bharti Airtel Ltd., Reliance JioInfocomm Ltd.,
Vodafone Idea Ltd. and MTNL. The duration of the trials, at present, is for a period
of 6 months.
 Each TSP will have to conduct trials in rural and semi-urban settings also in
addition to urban settings so that the benefit of 5G Technology proliferates across
the country and is not confined only tourban areas.
 The objectives of conducting 5G trials include testing 5G spectrum
propagation characteristics especially in the Indian context; model tuning and

evaluation of chosen equipment andvendors; testing of indigenous technology;
testing of applications; and to test 5G phones and devices.
 5G technology is expected to deliver improved user experience in terms of
data download rates (expected to be 10 times that of 4G), up to three times greater
spectrum efficiency, and ultra low latency to enable Industry 4.0.
The TSPs are encouraged to conduct trials using 5Gi technology in addition to the
already known 5G Technology. It will be recalled that International
Telecommunications Union (ITU) has also approved the 5Gi technology, which was
advocated by India, as it facilitates much larger reach of the 5G towers and Radio
networks. The 5Gi technology has been developed by IIT Madras, Centre of
Excellence in Wireless Technology (CEWiT) and IIT Hyderabad. Hence statement
2 is incorrect.
5G or fifth generation is the latest upgrade in the long-term evolution (LTE) mobile
broadband networks. 5G mainly works in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high
frequency spectrum — all of which have their own uses as well as
limitations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q10. VINCOV may be the first specific drug for COVID treatment. It has been
developed by:
a) CSIR- Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology
b) Pfizer Inc.
c) University of Oxford
d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The CSIR- Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology has developed, possibly the
first specific drug for COVID-19 treatment, which contain therapeutic antibodies.
 The Drug Controller General of India (DGCI) has given its approval for human
trials, Phase-I and Phase-II for the VINCOV-19 and expected to be tried next week
in Delhi and Rajasthan.
 Developed by the CCMB, University of Hyderabad and Vins Bioproduct ltd
combine, the VINCOV-19 is a collection of antibodies from Horses after they got
injected inactivated Corona virus.