04 OCTOBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which of the following statements are correct about “Contempt of Court”?

1. The expression “contempt of court” is defined in constitution.
2. The Supreme court and High Courts derive the power to punish for contempt from
   constitution.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 1 is not correct.
   Recently, the Supreme Court held that its power to punish for contempt under Article 129 is a
   constitutional power, which cannot be done away with even by any law.
   Highlights of the Judgment:
    The power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power vested in this court
   which cannot be abridged or taken away even by legislative enactment.
    Article 142 (2) states that “subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by
   Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order on
   punishment of any contempt of itself.
   o However, Article 129 lays down that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record,
   and shall have all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for
   contempt.
   About ‘Contempt of Court’:
   Contempt of court is the power of the court to protect its own majesty and respect. The power is
   regulated but not restricted in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
   The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
   However, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish
   contempt of itself.
   Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
   The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt.
    Civil contempt refers to wilful disobedience to any judgment of the court.
    Criminal contempt can be invoked if an act:
3. Tends to scandalise or lower the authority of the court.
4. Tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding.
5. Obstruct the administration of justice.
   Q2. Which of the following statements are correct about “Special Category Status”?
6. Himachal Pradesh was the state to get Special Category Status in Independent India.
7. There is no provision of Special Category Status in Indian Constitution.
8. It is based upon Gadgil formula.
   Select the correct answer using the code given belowa) 1 only
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   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 2 only
   d) 1,2 and 3
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Statement 1 is not correct.
   About Special Category Status (SCS):
   Special category status is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that
   face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
   This classification was done on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission in 1969.
   It was based on the Gadgil formula. The parameters for SCS were:
    Hilly Terrain;
    Low Population Density And/Or Sizeable Share of Tribal Population;
    Strategic Location along Borders With Neighbouring Countries;
    Economic and Infrastructure Backwardness; and
    Nonviable Nature of State finances.
   SCS was first accorded in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland. Since then eight more
   states have been included (Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
   Sikkim, Tripura and Uttarakhand).
   There is no provision of SCS in the Constitution.
   Special Category Status for plan assistance was granted in the past by the National Development
   Council to the States that are characterized by a number of features necessitating special
   consideration.
   Now, it is done by the central government.
   The 14th Finance Commission has done away with the ‘special category status’ for states, except
   for the Northeastern and three hill states.
   Instead, it suggested that the resource gap of each state be filled through ‘tax devolution’, urging
   the Centre to increase the states’ share of tax revenues from 32% to 42%, which has been
   implemented since 2015.
   Benefits to States with SCS:
    The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally-sponsored scheme to special
   category status states as against 60% or 75% in case of other states, while the remaining
   funds are provided by the state governments.
    Unspent money does not lapse and is carried forward.
    Significant concessions are provided to these states in excise and customs duties, income
   tax and corporate tax.
   Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Office of the Governor as
   mentioned in the constitution?
9. The Governor should not belong to the state where he is appointed.
10. The President is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned while
    appointing the governor.
11. The Governor of a state holds office during the pleasure of the President.
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    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1,2 and 3
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 and 2 are not correct.
    The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor.
    These are:
    1) He should be a citizen of India.
    2) He should have completed the age of 35 years.
     Additionally, by convention, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so
    that he is free from the local politics.
     The president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned while
    appointing governor so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the
    state is ensured. But it is just a convention and not a Constitutional provision.
     A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his
    office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further,
    he can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President. The governor
    has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President
    at any time.
    Q4. “Global Wealth Report” is released by which of the following organisation?
    a) Credit Suisse
    b) World Economic Forum
    c) United Nation Development Fund
    d) UNCTAD
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Recently, Credit Suisse has released the Global Wealth Report 2020.
    Credit Suisse is a financial services company based in Switzerland.
    The Credit Suisse Global Wealth Report provides the most comprehensive and up-to-date coverage
    of information on household wealth worldwide.
    Global Scenario:
    In 2019, total global wealth rose by USD 36.3 trillion and wealth per adult reached USD 77,309,
    which is 8.5% more when compared to 2018.
    As a consequence, the world has been better placed to absorb any losses from Covid-19 during
    2020.
    However, total household wealth dropped by USD 17.5 trillion between January and March 2020, a
    4.4% increase compared to the value at the end of 2019.
    Asia Pacific is the highest contributor of household wealth.
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    Female workers have suffered disproportionately, partly because of their high representation in
    businesses and industries such as restaurants, hotels, personal service and retail that have been
    badly affected by the pandemic.
    Indian Scenario:
     Household wealth in India is dominated by property and other real assets, although
    financial assets have grown over time, now forming 22% of gross assets.
     Stocks, bonds, bank deposits are some examples of financial assets.
     The average wealth of Indian adults rose marginally to USD 17,420 at end-June 2020, as
    against USD 17,300 as of December 2019, showing some growth despite the Covid
    pandemic and lockdowns.
     Wealth inequality remains quite high in India.
     There is considerable poverty reflected in the fact that 73% of the adult population had
    wealth below USD 10,000 at the end of 2019.
     At the other extreme, a small fraction of the population (2.3% of adults) had a net worth
    over USD 1,00,000.
     With 4,593 ultra-high-net-worth individuals in the country as of end-2019, India came in
    fourth after the USA, China and Germany.
    Q5. In the context of retrospective taxation, consider the following statements:
12. It is a policy of taxing an income earned in the past.
13. Recently Indian government has won an international arbitration case against Cairn, on this
    issue.
14. India is the only country in the world which taxes companies retrospectively.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1 and 3 only
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Statement 2 and 3 are not correct.
    Retrospective taxation allows a country to pass a rule on taxing certain products, items or services
    and deals and charge companies from a time behind the date on which the law is passed. Countries
    use this route to correct any anomalies in their taxation policies that have, in the past, allowed
    companies to take advantage of such loopholes.
    The Indian government has lost an international arbitration case to energy giant Cairn Plc over the
    retrospective levy of taxes, and has been asked to pay damages worth ₹ 8000 crore to the UK firm.
    This is the second setback for Indian government related to retrospective taxation after it lost the
    arbitration case against Vodafone.
    Apart from India, many countries including the USA, the UK, the Netherlands, Canada, Belgium,
    Australia and Italy have retrospectively taxed companies.
    Q6. “Data Governance Quality Index” is released by-
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    a) World Economic Forum
    b) NITI Aayog
    c) United Nations
    d) World Bank
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Recently, the Department of Fertilizers (Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers) has been ranked 3rd
    out of the 65 Ministries/Departments with a score of 4.11 on a scale of 5 on Data Governance
    Quality Index (DGQI).
    It has been ranked 2nd amongst the 16 Economic Ministries/Departments.
    DGQI survey was conducted by the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI
    Aayog to assess different Ministries/Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central
    Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
    Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Sedition1. It is a non-bailable offence.
15. An Individual charged with sedition is barred from government job.
16. The law was inserted in Indian Penal Code in 1860.
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1 and 3 only
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Historical Background of Sedition Law:
     Sedition laws were enacted in 17th century England when lawmakers believed that only
    good opinions of the government should survive, as bad opinions were detrimental to the
    government and monarchy.
     The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician,
    but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860. Hence,
    statement 3 is incorrect.
     Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when
    it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offence.
     It was one of the many draconian laws enacted to stifle any voices of dissent at that time.
    Sedition Law Today: Sedition is a crime under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
     It defines sedition as an offence committed when “any person by words, either spoken or
    written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring
    into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the
    government established by law in India”.
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     Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However, comments without
    exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an
    offence under this section.
     Sedition is a non-bailable offence. Punishment under the Section 124A ranges
    from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added.
     A person charged under this law is barred from a government job.
     They must live without their passport and must always produce themselves in the court as
    and when required.
    Q8. Which of the following countries are part of OPEC Plus?
17. Azerbaijan
18. Brunei
19. Mexico
20. India
21. South Sudan
22. United States of America
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 2,3,4 and 5 only
    b) 1,2,3 and 4 only
    c) 1,2,3 and 5 only
    d) 3,4 and 6 only
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Plus
     It is a loosely affiliated entity consisting of the OPEC members and 10 of the world’s major
    non-OPEC oil-exporting nations which are:
    o Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South
    Sudan and Sudan.
    Q9. For which of the following, drones are used for range of purposes?
23. Package Delivery
24. Monitoring Environment Changes’
25. Aerial Photography
26. Search and Relief Operations
27. Combat Use
    Select the correct answer using the code belowa) 1,4 and 5 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 and 5 only
    d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
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     Drone is a layman terminology for Unmanned Aircraft (UA). There are three subsets of
    Unmanned Aircraft- Remotely Piloted Aircraft, Autonomous Aircraft and Model Aircraft.
    o Remotely Piloted Aircraft consists of remote pilot station(s), the required
    command and control links and any other components, as specified in the type
    design.
     Besides combat use, drones are used for a range of purposes like package delivery, in
    agriculture (spraying pesticides etc), monitoring environmental changes, aerial
    photography, and during search and relief operations, among others.
    Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural Census in India:
28. It is a Central Sector Scheme for the collection of data on the structure of operational
    holdings by different size classes and social groups.
29. It is conducted every five years in India.
30. The first Agricultural Census was conducted in 1950-51.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 2 only
    d) 1 and 2 only
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Agricultural Census, is conducted every five years in India for the collection of data on the structure
    of operational holdings by different size classes and social groups. Primary ( fresh data) and
    secondary (already published) data on the structure of Indian agriculture are collected under this
    operation with the help of State Governments.
    Agricultural Census is carried out as a Central Sector Scheme under which 100% financial
    assistance is provided to States/Union Territories. Agricultural Census operation is carried out in
    three phases.
     During Phase-I, a list of all holdings with data on area, gender, and social group of the
    holder is prepared with the help of the listing schedule.
     During Phase-II detailed data on tenancy, land use, irrigation status, area under different
    crops (irrigated and un-irrigated) are collected in holding schedule.
     Phase-III, which is called Input Survey, relates to the collection of data of input use across
    various crops, States, and size groups of holdings, in addition to data on agriculture credit,
    implements, and machinery, livestock, and seeds. It is undertaken by the Ministry of
    Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. The first Agricultural Census in the country was conducted
    with the reference year 1970-71