01 JUNE CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. All countries try and maximise their room for manoeuvre within the constraints
that they find themselves in. Which of the following terms best describes the above
sentence?
a) Strategic Autonomy
b) Alliances
c) Geopolitics
d) Geostrategy

Answer: a)

Explanation:
Strategic autonomy:
 All countries try and maximise their room for manoeuvre within the constraints that
they find themselves in. It is widely assumed that the pursuit of “strategic
autonomy” is a unique attribute of Indian foreign policy.
 Autonomy and alliances:
o Autonomy is about the basic impulse for enhancing the degree of one’s
freedom.
o Alliances are about coping with real or perceived threats to one’s security.
o Both are natural trends in international politics.
o How a nation finds the balance between the two imperatives depends on the
circumstances.
o Joining an alliance does not mean ceding one’s sovereignty.
o Within every alliance, there is a perennial tension between seeking more
commitments from the partner in return for limiting one’s own.

Q2. Baghdad pact was also known as
a) CENTO
b) SEATO
c) NATO
d) None of the above

Answer: a)

Explanation:
The Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO), originally known as the Baghdad Pact or the
Middle East Treaty Organisation (METO) (disambiguation), was a military alliance of the
Cold War. It was formed in 1955 by Iran, Iraq, Pakistan, Turkey and the United Kingdom
and dissolved in 1979.

 Similar to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and the Southeast Asia Treaty
Organization, the main purpose of the Baghdad Pact was to prevent communist
incursions and foster peace in the Middle East.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Employee’s Provident Fund (EPF)
Scheme:

1. It is the main scheme under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
2. Under this scheme, both the employee and employer contribute 12% of the employee’s
   basic salary and dearness allowance towards EPF.
3. A person mandatorily becomes a member of EPF if his monthly salary does not exceed
   ₹15,000.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c)

Explanation:
 Employees’ Provident Funds (EPF) Scheme is the main scheme under the
Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Act, 1952. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct.
 It offers the institution of provident funds for factory employees and other
establishments.
 The employee and employer each contribute 12% of the employee’s basic salary and
dearness allowance towards EPF. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 The Economic Survey 2016-17 had suggested that employees be allowed to choose
whether or not to save 12% of their salary into EPF or keep it as take home pay.
 As per current laws, a person mandatorily becomes a member of EPF if his monthly
salary does not exceed Rs. 15,000. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q4. Which of the following comprises of ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’
recently notified by Union Ministry of Defence (MoD)?

1. Next Generation Corvettes
2. Air Borne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) systems
3. Tank Engines
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d)

Explanation:
Ministry of Defence (MoD) has notified ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’ of 108 items to
promote indigenisation in the Defence sector and defence exports.
 This will give further boost to indigenisation with active participation of public and private
sector for fulfilling the twin objectives of achieving self-reliance and promoting defence
exports.
 All the 108 items will now be procured from indigenous sources as per provisions given in
Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020.
 The second list (enclosed) lays special focus on weapons/systems which are currently
under development/trials and are likely to translate into firm orders in the future.
 The ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’ comprises complex systems, sensors, simulator,
weapons and ammunitions like Helicopters, Next Generation Corvettes, Air Borne Early
Warning and Control (AEW&C) systems, Tank Engines, Medium Power Radar for
Mountains, MRSAM Weapon Systems etc.
 This second list is planned to be implemented progressively with effect from December
2021 to December 2025.
 In August 2020, the ‘First Positive Indigenisation’ List comprising 101 items was notified.
 At that time, it was also highlighted that more such equipment would be identified
progressively to facilitate and encourage defence manufacturing in the country.
 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to AmbiTAG

1. It is a first-of-its-kind IoT device which helps to know whether a particular soil in a
   region is suitable for a particular vegetable or fruits.
2. The device has been developed under Agriculture and Water Technology Development
   Hub (AWaDH), a Govt of India project.
   Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b)
Explanation:

Indian Institute of Technology, Ropar (IIT Ropar) in Punjab has recently developed a first-
of-its-kind IoT device – AmbiTag.

AmbiTag
 It is an Internet of Things (IoT) device which records real-time ambient temperature
during the transportation of perishable products, vaccines and even body organs
and blood.
 That recorded temperature further helps to know whether that particular item
transported from anywhere in the world is still usable or perished because of
temperature variation.
 This information is particularly critical for vaccines including Covid-19 vaccine,
organs and blood transportation.
 Besides perishable items including vegetables, meat and dairy products it can also
monitor the temperature of animal semen during transit.
 The device has been developed under Technology Innovation Hub – AWaDH
(Agriculture and Water Technology Development Hub), a Govt of India project and
it’s Startup ScratchNest.
Working
 Shaped as USB device, AmbiTag continuously records the temperature of its
immediate surroundings from -40 to +80 degrees in any time zone for a full 90 days
on a single charge.
 Most of the similar devices available in the international market record data only
for duration of 30- 60 days.
 It generates an alert when the temperature goes beyond a pre-set limit.
 The recorded data can be retrieved by connecting the USB with any computer.

Q6. Van Gujjars, the largest forest-dwelling community predominantly found in
which of the following Himalayan states?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Assam
c) Sikkim
d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: a)

Explanation:
Van Gujjars
 They are a nomadic tribe of pastoralists who dwell in the Himalayan region.
 Van Gujjars pursue seasonal migration from the Terai-Bhabar and Siwalik region
of Uttarakhand to the higher bugyals in the Western Himalayas in summer and vice
versa in winter.
 The Forest Rights Act (FRA) has ensured that even pastoralists possess rights to
access grazing pastures in lieu of the Community Forest Resource right they are
eligible for, which applies for Van Gujjars.

Q7. With reference to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth, consider the
following statements:

1. India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted by 7.3% in 2020-21, as per provisional
   National Income estimates released by the National Statistical Office.
2. Only two sectors bucked the trend of negative GVA growth are agriculture, forestry and
   fishing, which rose 3.6%, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services (up
   1.9%).
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c)
Explanation:
India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted by 7.3% in 2020-21, as per provisional
National Income estimates released by the National Statistical Office. GDP growth in 2019-
20, prior to the COVID-19 pandemic, was 4%.
The Gross Value Added (GVA) in the economy shrank 6.2% in 2020-21, compared to a
4.1% rise in the previous year.
Only two sectors bucked the trend of negative GVA growth — agriculture, forestry and
fishing, which rose 3.6%, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services (up
1.9%).
GVA for trade, hotels, transport, communication and broadcasting-related services saw
the sharpest decline of 18.2%, followed by construction (-8.6%), mining and quarrying (-
8.5%) and manufacturing (-7.2%).
Though this is the bleakest performance on record for the economy, the fourth quarter
(Q4) of 2020-21 helped moderate the damage, with a higher-than-expected growth of 1.6%
in GDP.
This marked the second quarter of positive growth after the country entered a technical
recession in the first half of the year.
GDP had contracted 24.4% in April-June 2020, followed by a 7.4% shrinkage in the second
quarter. It had returned to positive territory in the September to December quarter with a
marginal 0.5% growth.
Hence both statements are correct.

Q8. With reference to the Maratha reservation, consider the following statements:

1. Maratha community recently brought under Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota
   in Maharashtra.
2. 103rd Constitutional amendment Act 2019 introduced 10% reservation for Economically
   Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c)
Explanation:
Maratha community brought under Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota in
Maharashtra.
In a bid to extend relief to the Maratha community in the State, the tripartite Maha Vikas
Aghadi (MVA) government in Maharashtra extended the benefits of reservation for the
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) to the Socially and Economically Backward Class
(SEBC).
Previously, the government had decided that the Maratha community could not take
advantage of the 10% EWS category as Maratha reservation was in force in the State.
The Supreme Court, however, scrapped the SEBC reservation in jobs and education,
making it possible for the State government to extend the benefit of the EWS quota to the
Marathas.
As per the government resolution, a person fulfilling the criterion for EWS would be eligible
for 10% reservation in educational institutes, barring minority institutes.

This would also be applied for State government recruitment. The resolution said the
reservation would be above the existing reservation.
It also stated that the benefit would be available from September 9, 2020, when the apex
court brought an interim stay on the reservation, to May 5, 2021, when the final verdict
was announced.
103rd Constitution amendment Act 2019 introduced 10% reservation for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.
Hence both statements are correct.

Q9. P Alavi Vs State of Kerala case related to
a) Right to Privacy
b) Right to Internet
c) Sedition
d) None of the above

Answer: c)
Explanation:

Q10. Liquid oxygen is
a) Pale blue in colour
b) Strongly Paramagnetic
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None

Answer: c)
Explanation:
About Liquid oxygen
● It is the liquid form of molecular oxygen.
● Liquid oxygen has a pale blue color and is strongly paramagnetic: it can be suspended
between the poles of a powerful horseshoe magnet.
● Because of its cryogenic nature, liquid oxygen can cause the materials it touches to
become extremely brittle.
● Liquid oxygen is also a very powerful oxidizing agent: organic materials will burn rapidly
and energetically in liquid oxygen.
● In commerce, liquid oxygen is classified as an industrial gas and is widely used for
industrial and medical purposes.
● Liquid oxygen is the most common cryogenic liquid oxidizer propellant for spacecraft
rocket applications, usually in combination with liquid hydrogen, kerosene or methane.