08 & 09 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty, all the waters of the western
   rivers are allocated to India for unrestricted use.
2. The treaty allocates 80% of the water from the six-river Indus water system
   to Pakistan.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: b)
   Explanation:
   Indus water treaty
   • Indus Water Treaty (IWT) signed on September 19, 1960, between India and
   Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank (International Bank for
   Reconstruction and Development) which fixed and delimited the rights and
   obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus
   River system.
   • Geographical location: The origination of the Indus River from
   southwestern Tibet Autonomous Region of China and flows through the
   disputed Kashmir region and then into Pakistan to drain into the Arabian
   Sea.
   • Distribution: IWT deals with river Indus and its five tributaries. Eastern
   following rivers like Sutlej, Beas and Ravi were given to India whereas
   Pakistan got control over Indus, Chenab, and Jhelum.
   o Under the provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty, all the waters of the
   eastern rivers — the Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi is allocated to India for
   unrestricted use.
   o The waters of western rivers — Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab is largely
   for Pakistan. 1 is incorrect.
   o The treaty allocates 80% of the water from the six-river Indus
   water system to Pakistan and India is allowed to use 20 percent
   of its water for irrigation, power generation, and transport
   purposes. 2 is correct.
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   • Permanent Indus Commission: This unique treaty led down the formation
   of PIC which was set up as a bilateral commission to implement and manage
   the Treaty.
   • Significance: The treaty administers how river Indus and its tributaries that
   flow in both countries will be utilized.
   Q2. Consider the following statements:
3. Tribunal under Article 323A cannot be established by state legislatures.
4. While Article 323A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public
   service matters only, article 323B contemplates the establishment of
   tribunals for any kind of matter except Public Services.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The
   42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This
   part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A
   dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for
   other matters.
   Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorised to
   provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating
   to certain matters.
   While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service
   matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals
   for certain other matters(as mentioned above) 2 is incorrect.
   While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament,
   tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state
   legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence. 1 is
   correct.
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   Q3. Which of the following steps could be taken to control the inflation?
5. Increasing the Repo Rate by the Reserve Bank
6. RBI buying government securities from the market
7. Increasing the interest paid on bonds
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   a) 1 and 2
   b) 2 and 3
   c) 1 and 3
   d) 1, 2 and 3
   Solution: c)
   Explanation:
   Inflation occurs when an economy grows due to increased spending. When this
   happens, prices rise and the currency within the economy is worth less than it was
   before.
   One popular method of controlling inflation is through a contractionary
   monetary policy. Discouraging spending by way of increased interest rates and
   reduced money supply helps control rising inflation. It may also lead to increased
   unemployment at the same time. The idea here is to make the opportunity cost of
   holding money high so that people want to hold and spend less of it. There are
   three main tools to carry out a contractionary policy.
   The first is to increase interest rates. The Repo Rate is the rate at which banks
   borrow money from the RBI. So, when the Reserve Bank increases its interest rate,
   banks have no choice but to increase their rates as well. When banks increase their
   rates, fewer people want to borrow money because it costs more to do so while that
   money accrues at a higher interest. So, spending drops, prices drop and inflation
   slows. 1 is correct.
   The second tool is to increase reserve requirements on the amount of money
   banks are legally required to keep on hand to cover withdrawals. The more money
   banks are required to hold back, the less they have to lend to consumers. If they
   have less to lend, consumers will borrow less, which will decrease spending.
   The third method is to directly or indirectly reduce the money
   supply. Increasing the interest paid on bonds so that more investors will buy
   them. This policy will reduce the amount of money in circulation. 3 is correct.
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   Q4. Consider the following:
8. Mercury
9. Carbon dioxide
10. Oxides of nitrogen
11. Oxides of sulphur
    Which of the above are the emissions from coal combustion at thermal power
    plants?
    a) 1,2 and 3 only
    b) 2,3 and 4 only
    c) 1,2 and 4 only
    d) All of the above
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    The flue gas from combustion contains carbon dioxide and water vapor, as well as
    other substances such as nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulfur oxides (SOx), mercury,
    traces of other metals, and, for coal-fired plants, fly ash.
    Q5. Who among the following participated in the Quit India Movement?
    a) Hindu Mahasabha
    b) Communist
    c) Muslim league
    d) Government Officials
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Extent of Mass Participation during Quit India Movement. The participation was
    on many levels.
    • Government officials, especially those belonging to lower levels in police and
    administration, participated resulting in erosion of government loyalty.
    • The Communists did not join the movement. The Muslim League opposed
    the movement, fearing that if the British left India at that time, the minorities
    would be oppressed by the Hindus.
    • The Hindu Mahasabha boycotted the movement.
    • The Princely states showed a low-key response
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    Q6. Which of the following instructions was/were given by Mahatma Gandhi on
    the eve of the Quit India movement ?
12. Asked government servant to resign from job
13. Asked soldiers to leave the army
14. Asked peasant not to pay rent to pro government zamindars
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 only
    d) All of the above
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    The ‘Quit India’ Resolution: The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the
    Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
    Gandhi’s General Instructions to Different Sections
    Gandhi’s special instructions were spelt out at the Gowalia Tank meeting but not
    actually issued. They were directed at various sections of society.
    • Government servants: Do not resign but declare your allegiance to the
    Congress. (1 is incorrect)
    • Soldiers: Do not leave the Army but do not fire on compatriots. (2 is
    incorrect)
    • Students: If confident, leave studies.
    • Peasants: If zamindars are anti-government, pay mutually agreed rent, and
    if zamindars are pro-government, do not pay rent. (3 is correct)
    • Princes: Support the masses and accept the sovereignty of your people.
    • Princely states’ people: Support the ruler only if he is anti-government and
    declare yourselves to be a part of the Indian nation.
    Q7. With reference to the Ujjwala 2.0 (Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana – PMUY),
    consider the following statements:
15. During Ujjwala 1.0 launched in 2016, a target was set to provide LPG
    connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households.
16. Ujjwala 2.0 aim to provide deposit-free LPG connections to those low-income
    families who could not be covered under the earlier phase of PMUY.
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    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Prime Minister Narendra Modi will launch Ujjwala 2.0 (Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala
    Yojana – PMUY) by handing over LPG connections, at Mahoba Uttar Pradesh on
    10th August, 2021.
    Ujjwala 1.0:
    • During Ujjwala 1.0 launched in 2016, a target was set to provide LPG
    connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households.
    • Subsequently, the scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women
    beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, Most
    backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers, Islands).
    • Also, the target was revised to 8 Crore LPG connections. This target was
    achieved in August 2019, seven months ahead of the target date.
    Ujjwala 2.0:
    • In the Union budget for FY 21-22, provision for an additional one crore LPG
    connection under the PMUY scheme was announced.
    • These one crore additional PMUY connections (under Ujjwala 2.0) aim to
    provide deposit-free LPG connections to those low-income families who could
    not be covered under the earlier phase of PMUY.
    • Along with a deposit free LPG connection, Ujjwala 2.0 will provide first refill
    and hotplate free of cost to the beneficiaries. Also, the enrollment procedure
    will require minimum paperwork.
    • In Ujjwala 2.0, migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or
    address proof. A self-declaration for both ‘family declaration’ and as a ‘proof
    of address’ will suffice.
    • Ujjwala 2.0 will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access
    to LPG.
    Hence both statements are incorrect.
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    Q8. ‘Ujjwal Abahan’, recently seen in news, is an initiative of:
    a) ONGC
    b) NITI Aayog
    c) CSIR
    d) None of the above
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas launched ONGC-supported Assam Handloom
    project ‘Ujjwal Abahan’ on 6 August 2021 through virtual platform.
    • The project will support and train over a hundred artisans of Bhatiapar of
    Sivasagar, Assam in Hathkharga handicraft.
    • This project is in line with the government’s observance of “Azadi Ka Amrit
    Mahotsav”, under which ONGC has earlier launched two projects supporting
    the indigenous handicrafts of the country.
    Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
    Q9. With reference to the All-India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), consider the
    following statements:
17. It is a public Ayurveda medicine and research institution located in Mumbai.
18. It is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of AYUSH.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Union Ayush Minister assured all help for establishing the first Bio-Bank of the
    world in Ayurveda at All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA).
    • AIIA is a public Ayurveda medicine and research institution located in New
    Delhi.
    • It was established in 2015.
    • It is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of AYUSH.
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    • The institute would offer postgraduate and doctoral courses in various
    disciplines of Ayurveda and will focus on fundamental research of Ayurveda,
    drug development, standardization, quality control, safety evaluation and
    scientific validation of Ayurvedic medicine.
    Hence only statement 2 is correct.
    Q10. With reference to the UN Security Council Open Debate, consider the
    following statements:
19. Prime Minister Narendra Modi, would be the fourth Indian Prime Minister to
    preside over a UN Security Council Open Debate.
20. The Open Debate will focus on ways to effectively counter maritime crime and
    insecurity and strengthened coordination in the maritime domain.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Prime Minister Narendra Modi will chair the High-level Open Debate on ‘Enhancing
    Maritime Security – A Case for International Cooperation’ on 9th August via video
    conferencing.
    • Narendra Modi, would be the first Indian Prime Minister to preside over a UN
    Security Council Open Debate.
    • The Open Debate will focus on ways to effectively counter maritime crime
    and insecurity and strengthened coordination in the maritime domain.
    • Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi put forward the vision of SAGAR – an
    acronym for ‘Security and Growth for all in the Region’ in 2015.
    • In 2019, at the East Asia Summit, this initiative was further elaborated
    through the Indo-Pacific Oceans’ Initiative (IPOI) with a focus on seven pillars
    of maritime security including
    o Maritime Ecology;
    o Maritime Resources;
    o Capacity Building and Resource Sharing;
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    o Disaster Risk Reduction and Management;
    o Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation; and
    o Trade Connectivity and
    o Maritime Transport.