05 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
(Amendment) Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:

1. It seeks to amend the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
2. AERA regulates tariffs and other charges (such as airport development fees) for
   aeronautical services rendered at major airports in India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
With the passage in Rajya Sabha, Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 got approval of both houses of Parliament. Earlier, on July
29, the Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha.
• It seeks to amend the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act,

2008. The 2008 Act established the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority
      (AERA).
      • AERA regulates tariffs and other charges (such as airport development fees)
      for aeronautical services rendered at major airports in India.
      • Major airports: The 2008 Act designates an airport as a major airport if it
      has an annual passenger traffic of at least 35 lakh. The central government
      may also designate any airport as a major airport by a notification. The Bill
      adds that the central government may group airports and notify the group
      as a major airport.
      • Hence both statements are correct.

Q2. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘IAC Vikrant’, that was in
the news recently?
a) India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier in construction
b) Nuclear-powered submarine
c) Stealth destroyer
d) Nuclear powered icebreaker

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Solution: a)
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the Indian Navy and Cochin Shipyard
Limited for the maiden sea trial of India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier (IAC)
Vikrant.
• With a planned induction of Vikrant in less than a year, India is set to join a
select group of countries having the capability to indigenously design and
build an aircraft carrier.
• Vikrant is named after the Majestic-class aircraft carrier which was operated
by the Indian Navy from 1961 to 1997.
• IAC-1 has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design
(DND), and is being built at Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), a public sector
shipyard under the Ministry of Shipping.
• This is the first aircraft carrier designed and built in India. An aircraft carrier
is one of the most potent marine assets for a nation, which enhances a Navy’s
capability to travel far from its home shores to carry out air domination
operations.
• India’s earlier aircraft carriers were either built by the British or the
Russians.
• The INS Vikramaditya, currently the Navy’s only aircraft carrier that was
commissioned in 2013, started out as the Soviet-Russian Admiral Gorshkov.
• The country’s two earlier carriers, INS Vikrant and INS Viraat, were originally
the British-built HMS Hercules and HMS Hermes before being commissioned
into the Navy in 1961 and 1987 respectively.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q3. With reference to the Samagra Shiksha Scheme, consider the following
statements:

1. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently approved continuation
   of the revised Samagra Shiksha Scheme for a period of five years.
2. The Scheme is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through a single
   State Implementation Society (SIS) at the State level.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved continuation of the
revised Samagra Shiksha Scheme for a period of five years i.e., from 2021-22 to
2025-26 with a total financial outlay of Rs.2,94,283.04 crore which includes
Central share of Rs.1,85,398.32 crore.
• The Centre plans to pay students their Right to Education (RTE) entitlements
in the form of cash transfers as part of a revamp.
• The Samagra Shiksha scheme is an integrated scheme for school education
covering the entire gamut from pre-school to class XII. The scheme covers
11.6 lakh government and aided schools with over 15 crore students and 57
lakh teachers.
• It involves a 60:40 split in funding between the Centre and most States.
• The major interventions proposed under the scheme are: (i) Universal Access
including Infrastructure Development and Retention; (ii) Foundational
Literacy and Numeracy, (iii) Digital initiatives; (iv) Vocational Education; (v)
Sports and Physical Education; (vi) Strengthening of Teacher Education and
Training etc.
• The Scheme is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through a
single State Implementation Society (SIS) at the State level.
• At the National level, there is a Governing Council/Body headed by the
Minister of Education and a Project Approval Board (PAB) headed by
Secretary, Department of School Education and Literacy.

Q4. With reference to the Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021,
consider the following statements:

1. The Bill seeks to amend the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
2. It aims to introduce the concept of “small limited liability partnership” in line
   with the concept of “small company” under the Companies Act, 2013.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
The Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was passed by Rajya
Sabha.
The Bill seeks to amend the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 and provides
for the following:
• To introduce the concept of “small limited liability partnership” in line with
the concept of “small company” under the Companies Act, 2013;
• To amend certain sections of the Act so as to convert offences into civil
defaults and to convert the nature of punishment provided in the said
sections from fines to monetary penalties;
• To insert a new section 34A so as to empower the Central Government to
prescribe the “Accounting Standards” or “Auditing Standards” for a class or
classes of limited liability partnerships;
• To amend section 39 of the Act relating to “compounding of offences” so as
to authorise the Regional Director to compound any offence under this Act
which is punishable with fine only;
• To insert a new section 67A empowering the Central Government to establish
or designate as many “Special Courts” as may be necessary for the purpose
of providing speedy trial of offences under the Act;
• To amend section 72 of the Act so as to provide more clarity in the provisions
when any person aggrieved by an order of “Tribunal” prefers an appeal to the
“Appellate Tribunal”;
• To insert a new section 76A so as to provide that the Central Government
may appoint as many officers as Adjudicating Officers as it thinks necessary
for the purpose of adjudicating penalties under the Act.
• Hence both statements are correct.

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Q5. With reference to the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS), consider the following statements:

1. Each MP is granted ₹15 crore every year under the scheme to undertake
   development projects in their respective constituencies.
2. Currently, funds released to district authorities under MPLADS is not lapsable,
   while funds not released by the government in a particular year are carried forward.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Virtually half of the belated ₹2,200 crore allotted for completing the ongoing
MPLADS projects in 2020-21 simply lapsed, as the Finance Ministry granted
“barely a week” to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MoSPI) to release the funds.
• Spending under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS) had already halved before the government suspended the scheme
for two years in April last year and diverted the funds for managing the
COVID-19 pandemic.
• From ₹5,012 crore spent during 2018-19, an expenditure of just ₹2,491.45
crore was taken up under the scheme in 2019-20.
• Each MP is granted ₹5 crore under the scheme, adding up to ₹3,950 crore a
year for 790 MPs, to undertake development projects in their respective
constituencies.
• After the scheme’s suspension, several MPs and parliamentary committees,
including the Standing Committee on Finance (SCF), had asked the
government to release MPLADS funds due from previous years for projects
already sanctioned.
• The Finance Ministry also asked the Statistics Ministry to further tighten the
scheme’s guidelines by September this year, so that “if a work sanctioned by

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an MP is not used for five years, it will automatically lapse even if there is a
committed liability for the work to be completed”.
• Currently, funds released to district authorities under MPLADS is not
lapsable, while funds not released by the government in a particular year are
carried forward.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas Bill, 2021, is
incorrect?
a) The Chairperson of the Commission, established through this bill, will have a
tenure of 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
b) The Bill dissolves the Environment Pollution Prevention and Control Authority
established in the NCR in 1998
c) In case of conflicts, directions of the Commission, established through this bill,
will prevail over the orders of the respective state governments, and the CPCB
d) The Commission may collect an environmental compensation from farmers
causing pollution by stubble burning

Solution: a)
Explanation:
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region (NCR)
and Adjoining Areas Bill, 2021
• The Bill provides for the constitution of a Commission for better co-ordination,
research, identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in the
NCR and adjoining areas.
• Adjoining areas have been defined as areas in Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan,
and Uttar Pradesh, adjoining the National Capital Territory of Delhi and NCR,
where any source of pollution may cause adverse impact on air quality in the
NCR.
• The Bill also dissolves the Environment Pollution Prevention and Control
Authority established in the NCR in 1998.
• The Chairperson and members of the Commission will have a tenure of three
years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.

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• The central government will constitute a selection committee to recommend
appointments of members of the Commission.
• The Committee will be headed by the Minister of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change.
• The Commission will be the sole authority with jurisdiction over matters
defined in the Bill (such as air quality management).
• In case of conflicts, directions of the Commission will prevail over the orders of
the respective state governments, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB),
state PCBs, and state-level statutory bodies.
• Contravention of provisions of the Bill, or orders and directions of the
Commission will be punishable with imprisonment of up to five years, or fine
of up to one crore rupees, or both.
• The Bill excludes farmers from the scope of these penalties.
• However, the Commission may collect an environmental compensation from
farmers causing pollution by stubble burning.
• This compensation will be prescribed by the central government.
Appeals against the Commission’s orders will lie with the National Green Tribunal.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 30 of Indian Constitution, Parliament, by law, can restrict or
   abrogate the rights of the members of the armed forces.
2. For the first time, Essential Defence Services Bill, 2021, made strikes by
   government employees explicitly illegal in India.
   Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Essential Defence Services Bill, 2021
• The Minister of Defence has recently introduced the Essential Defence Services
Bill, 2021, in Lok Sabha.

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• The bill provides for the maintenance of essential defence services so as “to
secure the security of nation and the life and property of the public at large”
and prevent staff of the government-owned ordnance factories from going on
strike.
• The Bill seeks to empower the government to declare services mentioned in it
as “essential defence services” and prohibit strikes and lockouts in any
industrial establishment or unit engaged in such services.
• This is not for the first time that strikes by government employees are being
made explicitly illegal by the government.
• The Madhya Pradesh (and Chhattisgarh) Civil Services Rules, 1965, prohibit
demonstrations and strikes by government servants and direct the competent
authorities to treat the durations as unauthorised absence.
Constitutional Provisions
• Under Article 33 of the Constitution, Parliament, by law, can restrict or
abrogate the rights of the members of the armed forces or the forces charged
with the maintenance of public order so as to ensure the proper discharge of
their duties and maintenance of discipline among them.
• Thus, for the armed forces and the police, where discipline is the most
important prerequisite, even the fundamental right to form an association can
be restricted under Article 19(4) in the interest of public order and other
considerations.

Q8. Consider the following statements with respective to Strait Island

1. It is a small island of Andaman & Nicobar, separated from Ritchie’s Archipelago
   through Diligent Strait.
2. The island is inhabited by Jarawas and Sentinelese tribes of Andaman &
   Nicobar.
   Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

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Explanation:
Strait Island
• The island belongs to the East Baratang Group of North & Middle Andaman
region and lies east of Colebrooke Island.
• The island is comma-shaped, and heavily forested it is separated from the
Ritchie’s Archipelago through Diligent Strait.
• Great Andamanese are one of five PVTGs that reside in ‘Strait Island’ of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The Jarwas of Anadaman live in Western coast of Middle Andaman and South
Andaman Islands.
• The Sentinelese tribes live in small North Sentinel Island.

Q9. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to Tribunal
Reform Bill 2021?

1. It seeks to provide for uniform terms and conditions of the various members of
   the Tribunal and abolish certain tribunals.
2. It empowers the Central Government to make rules for qualifications,
   appointment, and other terms and conditions of service of Members of
   Tribunals.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Tribunal Reform Bill 2021
• It seeks to dissolve certain existing appellate bodies and transfer their
functions to other existing judicial bodies.
• It seeks to empower the Central Government to make rules for qualifications,
appointment, term of office, salaries and allowances, resignation, removal and
other terms and conditions of service of Members of Tribunals.

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• It provides that the Chairperson and Members of the Tribunals will be

appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a Search-
cum-Selection Committee.

• It also provides the composition of the Committee, to be headed by the Chief
Justice of India or a Judge of Supreme Court nominated by him.
• It aims to abolish the following Appellate tribunals and their functions are to
be transferred to the existing judicial bodies.

1. Film Certification Appellate Tribunal,
2. Airports Appellate Tribunal,
3. Authority for Advanced Rulings,
4. Intellectual Property Appellate Board
5. Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal

Q10. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to SATNAV
Policy?

1. It aims to ensure the continuous availability of secured navigation signals for
   civilian uses and free-to-air navigation signals for strategic uses.
2. It aims to work towards compatibility and interoperability of Indian satellite
   navigation and augmentation signals with other Global Navigation Satellite
   Systems (GNSS).
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)
Explanation:
SATNAV Policy
• In order to achieve the goal of self-reliance in India’s Satellite based navigation
and augmentation services sector, a comprehensive SATNAV Policy has been
proposed by the Department of Space
• It aims to ensure the continuous availability of free-to-air navigation signals
for civilian uses and secured navigation signals for strategic uses.

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• Satellite based navigation is a constellation of navigation satellites with global
or regional coverage and its supporting infrastructure designed to provide all
weather passive 3-D positioning, velocity and timing data .
• Development of communication & information and mobile phone technology,
are dependent on PVT (Position Velocity and Time) based services.
• Also aims to continue and upgrade Space based Navigation Services (SBNS)
and Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) as part of government’s
Atmanirbhar bharat
• Secured SBNS exclusively for the Indian Strategic community is provided
through navigation with Indian Constellation (NAVIC)
• SBAS Services via GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) for Indian
airspace.