06 JULY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements in context of Civil Registration System:

1. The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 provides for the compulsory
   registration of births and deaths.
2. The normal period of 7 days (from the date of occurrence) has been
   prescribed for reporting the birth, death and still birth events.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)
Explanation:
What is CRS?
It is the process of continuous, permanent, compulsory and universal recording of
births and deaths in the country. The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969
(Act No. 18 of 1969) provides for the compulsory registration of births and deaths.
1 is correct.
Registration of Birth and Death rules 1969:
 The registration of births, deaths and still births are compulsory, in all parts
of the Country.
 The normal period of 21 days (from the date of occurrence) has been
prescribed for reporting the birth, death and still birth events. 2 is incorrect.
 If the event of a birth or death is reported for registration to the prescribed
authority within the normal period of 21days, no fee would be charged.

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. In 1897 he became the president of the Indian National Congress (INC).
2. He wrote the book ‘Gandhi and Anarchy’.
3. General O’Dwyer sued him for defamation in England.
   The person being mentioned in the above statements is:
   a) S. Radhakrishnan
   b) K. Ganesan

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c) Chettur Sankaran Nair
d) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair
Nair was known for being a passionate advocate for social reforms and a firm
believer in the self-determination of India.
 In 1897 he became the youngest president of the INC in the history of the
party till then, and the only Malayali to hold the post ever.
 In 1919, he played an important role in the expansion of provisions in
the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms which introduced a system of dyarchy in
the provinces and increased participation of Indians in the administration.
 In Budasna v Fatima (1914), he passed a radical judgement when he ruled
that those who converted to Hinduism cannot be treated as outcastes. In a
few other cases, he upheld inter-caste and inter-religious marriages.
 Critique of Gandhi: Nair wrote ‘Gandhi and Anarchy’, which was published
in 1922. In the book, Nair spelt out his critique of Gandhi’s methods,
especially those of non-violence, civil disobedience and non-cooperation
 Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh: And when the massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
happened, he resigned from the Viceroy’s Council in protest. Nair’s
resignation shook the British government.
o Nair had accused O’Dwyer in his book, ‘Gandhi and anarchy’ for being
responsible for the atrocities at the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
o Thereafter, O’Dwyer sued Nair for defamation in England.
o A historic courtroom battle: The 12-member all-English jury was
presided over by Justice Henry McCardie.
o Eventually, O’Dwyer won the case with a majority of 11 against one.
The only dissenting judge was Harold Laski.
o Nair had lost the case and was held guilty for defaming O’Dwyer. He
had to pay £500 and expense of the trial to the plaintiff.

Q3. Consider the following statements:

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1. The Raleigh Commission was appointed in 1902 to inquire into the workers
   in India.
2. The Hunter Commission of 1882 emphasized upon primary education.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Raleigh Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh
on 27 January 1902 to inquire into the condition and prospects of universities in
India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working. 1
is incorrect.
The Hunter Commission of 1882 emphasized upon the primary education. On
the contrary, the Raleigh Commission excluded primary education completely and
emphasized upon Higher Education only. 2 is correct.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) includes actions to be taken by various
   state governments to tackle industrial, vehicular and combustion emissions.
2. GRAP works only as an emergency measure.
3. Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is a
   statutory body under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 2 only
   d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: c)
Explanation:

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Statement 1 is incorrect: GRAP works only as an emergency measure. As such,
the plan does not include action by various state governments to be taken
throughout the year to tackle industrial, vehicular and combustion emissions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control)
Authority (EPCA)was notified in 1998 under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
It is a Supreme Court mandated body tasked with taking various measures to
tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region
Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)
Starting October 15, some stricter measures to fight air pollution will come into
force in Delhi and its neighboring National Capital Region (NCR) towns, as part of
the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP). The action plan has been in effect for
three years in Delhi and NCR.
Approved by the Supreme Court in 2016, the plan was formulated after several
meetings that the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA)
held with state government representatives and experts. The result was a plan that
institutionalized measures to be taken when air quality deteriorates.
The plan is incremental in nature; therefore, when the air quality moves from ‘Poor’
to ‘Very Poor’, the measures listed under both sections have to be followed.
GRAP was notified in 2017 by the Centre and draws its authority from this
notification. Before the imposition of any measures, EPCA holds a meeting with
representatives from all NCR states, and a call is taken on which actions have to
be made applicable in which town.
The plan requires action and coordination among 13 different agencies in Delhi,
Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan (NCR areas). At the head of the table is the
Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), mandated by the
Supreme Court.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Singapore Convention on
Mediation:

1. The Convention allows for direct enforcement of mediated settlement
   agreements.
2. It can be resorted to only in cases of international commercial disputes.
3. India is not a party to this convention.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Convention has 53 signatories, including India,
China and the U.S.
Singapore Convention on Mediation
The Singapore Convention on Mediation came into force recently and will provide
a more effective way for enforcing mediated settlements of corporate disputes
involving businesses in India and other countries that are signatories to the
Convention.
Also known as the United Nations Convention on International Settlement
Agreements Resulting from Mediation, this is also the first UN treaty to be named
after Singapore.
With the Convention in force, businesses seeking enforcement of a mediated
settlement agreement across borders can do so by applying directly to the courts
of countries that have signed and ratified the treaty, instead of having to enforce
the settlement agreement as a contract in accordance with each country’s domestic
process.
The Singapore Convention can be resorted to only in case of an international
commercial dispute, and specifically excludes disputes arising from personal,
family, inheritance or employment matters.

Q6. Kyrgyzstan is witnessing one of its worst political crises in decades. In this
context, consider the following statements:

1. It is a “doubly landlocked” country in Central Asia.
2. It is the smallest of the five central Asian states.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2

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d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A country is “doubly landlocked” or “double-landlocked”
when it is surrounded only by landlocked countries (requiring the crossing of at
least two national borders to reach a coastline). There are only two such countries:
Liechtenstein in Western Europe and Uzbekistan in Central Asia.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It’s the second- smallest of the five Central Asian states.

Q7. The Minsk Group spearheads the efforts to find a peaceful solution to the
Nagorno-Karabakh conflict, which is an ethnic and territorial conflict between:
a) Belarus and Ukraine
b) Turkey and Syria
c) Armenia and Azerbaijan
d) Yemen and Saudi Arabia

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Minsk Group
The Minsk Group, the activities of which have become known as the Minsk Process,
spearheads the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe’s (OSCE)
efforts to find a peaceful solution to the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict. It is co-chaired
by France, the Russian Federation, and the United States.
The military confrontation between Armenia and Azerbaijan, the gravest since a
fragile ceasefire was established in 1994, reflects the failure of the Minsk Group of
the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE).
The Minsk Group put forward in 2007 the Madrid Principles as the basis for the
formulation of a peace treaty between Armenia and Azerbaijan. Drawn from the
1975 Helsinki Final Act principles, signed at the Conference on Security and
Cooperation in Europe, they provided for a prohibition on the use of force, respect
for territorial integrity, and recognition of the equal right to self-determination.

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Q8. Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world. It is
located near which of the following peaks?
a) Garo hills
b) Crest of Jaintia hills
c) Khasi hills
d) Tura mountain

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Reason for Mawsynram receiving the highest average annual rainfall in the
world:
The sub-branch of Bay of Bengal branch of South west Monsoon strikes the Garo
and Khasi hills of Meghalaya.
These hills are funnel shaped which entrap the moisture laden winds. Therefore
because of intense orographic rainfall Mawsynram, located on the crest of Khasi
hills, receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world.

Q9. Which of the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) is/are correct?

1. SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization of 8
   members.
2. The Heads of Government Council (HGC) is its supreme decision making
   body that meets once a year.
3. Its secretariat is based in Beijing.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme
decision- making body in the SCO.

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It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters
of the organization. The SCO Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets once a
year to discuss the organization’s multilateral cooperation strategy and priority
areas, to resolve current important economic and other cooperation issues, and
also to approve the organization’s annual budget.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental
international organization, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001
in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China,
the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the
Republic of Uzbekistan. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization Charter was signed during the
St.Petersburg SCO Heads of State meeting in June 2002, and entered into force on
19 September 2003. This is the fundamental statutory document which outlines
the organisation’s goals and principles, as well as its structure and core activities.
Pakistan and India became members in 2017.

Q10. Which of the following reports are published by the World Bank?

1. World Development Report
2. Global Financial Stability Report
3. Doing Business Report
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 1 and 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)
Explanation:
The World Development Report, published by the World Bank annually since 1978,
is an invaluable guide to the economic, social, and environmental state of the world
today. Each report provides in-depth analysis and policy recommendations on a
specific and important aspect of development—from agriculture, the role of the
state, transition economies, and labour to infrastructure, health, the environment,

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and poverty. Global Financial Stability Report is published by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF). Doing business report is published by the World Bank. The
DB Report is an assessment of 190 economies and covers 10 indicators which span
the lifecycle of a business. India ranks 100 among 190 countries and has leapt 30
ranks over its rank of 130 in the Doing Business