04 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which Article of Indian Constitution reads “A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.”?

a) Article 164(1)

b) Article 164(2)

c) Article 164(3)

d) Article 164(4)

Solution: d)

Explanation:

Constitutional provisions

• In India’s constitutional scheme, anybody can be appointed as the chief minister or a minister or even prime minister without being a legislator.
• But such a person should get elected by the people within six months of appointment.
• Article 164(4) of the Constitution reads: “A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.”

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 164 of the Constitution providesthat there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.

2. When no party gets a clear majority in the State Legislative Assembly, the President normally asks the leader of the single largest party to form the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Explanation:

Appointment of CM

• The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor. The constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
• After general election to the State Legislative Assembly, the party or coalition group which secures majority in this House, elects its leader and communicates his name to the Governor.
• The Governor then formally appoints him as the Chief Minister and asks him to form his Council of Ministers.
• When no party gets a clear majority in the State Legislative Assembly, the Governor normally asks the leader of the single largest party to form the government.

Q3. Which of the following can be considered as the themes of Regional parties?

1. Identity

2. Statehood

3. Autonomy

4. Development

Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)

Explanation:

In India regional parties are based on themes like– Identity, Statehood, Autonomy and Development etc.

• Autonomy consists of demanding greater powers to the states (like the National Conference in Jammu and Kashmir).
• Statehood consists of fighting for an independent state within the country (like the Telangana Rashtra Samithi demanded a separate state of Telangana).
• Identity consists of fighting for recognition of cultural rights of a group (like the Shiv Sena in Maharashtra or the DMK fighting for the identity of the Dalits).
• Development consists of regional parties believing that only they can bring development to the people of a particular region.
• Sometimes regional parties create these ‘cultural specificities’ for electoral gains.

Q4. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has directed which of the following States to check illegal influx from Myanmar into India recently?

1. Nagaland

2. Manipur

3. Mizoram

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solutrion: d)

Explanation:

Illegal Influx from Myanmar

• Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has directed Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh to check illegal influx from Myanmar into India.
• More than a dozen foreign nationals including policemen and women from Myanmar have fled to neighbouring Mizoram.
• India already has a lot of Rohingya migrated from Myanmar. India, treats all refugees entering the country as illegal immigrants.
• In 2020, it was estimated that 40,000 Rohingya refugees lived in India, scattered across different states

Q5. With reference to the Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST), consider the following statements:

1. It is charged when movement of goods and services from one state to another.

2. The revenue out of IGST is shared by state government and central government as per the rates fixed by the authorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Centre has waived off IGST on the import of COVID related medical supplies including Remdesivir Injection/API, Medical Oxygen, O2 Concentrators, Cryogenic tanks & COVID Vaccines among others. The exemption has been granted till 30th June for free distribution of these medical supplies. Earlier the Centre had waived the import duty & health cess on such medical supplies.

• IGST meaning Integrated Goods and Service Tax, is one of the three categories under Goods and Service Tax (CGST, IGST and SGST) with a concept of one tax one nation.
• IGST falls under Integrated Goods and Service Tax Act 2016.
• IGST is charged when movement of goods and services from one state to another. For example, if goods are moved from Tamil Nadu to Kerala, IGST is levied on such goods.
• The revenue out of IGST is shared by state government and central government as per the rates fixed by the authorities.
• Under Article 269A of the Constitution,

• The GST on supplies in the course of interState trade shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and
• such tax shall be apportioned between the Union and the States according to the provisions of law on the recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax Council.
• Under the IGST scheme, 50% of the collections will go to the Centre (as the Central Goods and Services Tax component) and the remaining 50% will be allocated to the States and Union Territories (as the State Goods and Services Tax component). And, 42% of the CGST will be devolved to the States and Union Territories.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q6. Which of the following countries are part of the G-7 group?

1. US
2. Germany
3. India
4. Japan
   Answer using the correct code below
   a) 1 only
   b) 1,2 and 4 only
   c) 1 and 4 only
   d) All of the above

Solution: b)

Explanation:
About G-7 Members
 The G-7 or ‘Group of Seven’ are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan,
the United Kingdom, and the United States.
 Canada joined the group in 1976, and the European Union began attending
in 1977.
 The G-7 was known as the ‘G-8’ for several years after the original seven
were joined by Russia in 1997.
The Group returned to being called G-7 after Russia was expelled as a member
in 2014 following the latter’s annexation of the Crimea region of Ukraine.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites.
2. There are 5 parasite species that cause malaria in humans.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: c)

Explanation:
Both statements are correct.
 Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted
to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
 It is preventable and curable.
 Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites.
 There are 5 parasite species that cause malaria in humans, and 2 of these
species – P. falciparum and P. vivax – pose the greatest threat.
 Symptoms: The first symptoms – fever, headache, and chills – may be mild
and difficult to recognize as malaria. If not treated within 24 hours, P.
falciparum malaria can progress to severe illness, often leading to death.
 Malaria free status: Between 2000 and 2020, 24 countries reported zero
indigenous cases of malaria for 3 or more years.
o This is the benchmark for the World Health Organization (WHO)
certification of a country as malaria-free. Globally, 39 countries have
achieved the milestone.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. National Health Authority (NHA), the nodal agency managing the CoWin app has
   recently opened up the application programming interface (API) for vaccine
   appointments to the public.
2. An open API refers to a publicly available application programming interface (API)
   that provides developers access to a proprietary software application.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Since Covid-19 inoculation exercise commenced for the 18-44 age group, finding
an available slot at a vaccine centre has become a challenge, especially given that
it is mandatory for this age group to make an appointment on the CoWin app.
 With an aim to resolve this, the National Health Authority (NHA) — the nodal
agency managing the CoWin app — has opened up the APIs for vaccine
appointments to the public.
 An open API refers to a publicly available application programming interface (API)
that provides developers access to a proprietary software application. For instance,
you have a Google Maps API that integrates with food delivery or travel portal, or
the UPI API used by a range of apps to enable easy payments.
 In this case, the NHA has allowed anyone to access a set of requirements needed
to communicate and interact with the CoWin platform. This has enabled developers
to build third-party tools that allow users to set alerts for slot availabilities
according to various parameters.
 People can use these third-party tools to enter their details and they will get an
alert whenever a slot opens up.
 Hence both statements are correct.

Q9. With reference to the Ebola virus disease (EVD), consider the following
statements:

1. The virus can be transmitted to people only from wild animals.
2. There is as yet no licensed treatment proven to neutralize the virus.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Democratic Republic of Congo declared the end of an Ebola outbreak that
infected 12 people in the eastern province of North Kivu and killed six of them.
 The outbreak was contained using Merck’s Ebola vaccine, which was given to more
than 1,600 of the patients’ contacts and contacts of contacts.
 The cases were genetically linked to the 2018-20 Ebola epidemic that killed more
than 2,200 People, the second-highest toll recorded in the disease’s history.
 Ebola virus disease (EVD), formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever, is a
severe, often fatal illness in humans.
 Virus species: The virus family Filoviridae includes three genera: Cuevavirus,
Marburgvirus, and Ebolavirus. Within the genus Ebolavirus, five species have been
identified: Zaire, Bundibugyo, Sudan, Reston and Tai Forest.
 Transmission:
o The virus is transmitted to people from wild animals such as chimpanzees, gorillas,
fruit bats) and then spreads in the human population through human-to-human
transmission.
o It is thought that fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts.
o People can get the virus through sexual contact as well.
 Health impact: The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality
rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.
 Treatment: Early supportive care with rehydration, symptomatic treatment
improves survival. There is as yet no licensed treatment proven to neutralize the
virus but a range of blood, immunological and drug therapies are under
development.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q10. With reference to the ‘Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food
Processing Industry’(PLISFPI), consider the following statements:

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
2. Its objective is to support creation of global food manufacturing champions
   commensurate with India’s natural resource endowment and support Indian
   brands of food products in the international markets.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has issued detailed operational
scheme guidelines and has launched an online portal for ‘Production Linked
Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry’(PLISFPI)
 As a part of Prime Minister’s announcement of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan,
Government of India has approved a new Central Sector Scheme namely‘
Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry’ for
implementation during 2021-22 to 2026-27 with an outlay of Rs. 10,900 crore.
 Its objective is to support creation of global food manufacturing champions
commensurate with India’s natural resource endowment and support Indian
brands of food products in the international markets.
Ministry of Food Processing Industries is inviting applications for availing sales
based incentives and grants for undertaking Branding & Marketing activities
abroad under the scheme from three categories of Applicants:
 Category-I: Applicants are large entities who apply for Incentive based on Sales
and Investment Criteria. Applicant under this category could undertake Branding
& Marketing activities abroad also and apply for grant under the scheme with a
common application.
 Category-II: SMEs Applicants manufacturing innovative/ organic products who
apply for PLI Incentive based on Sales.
 Category-III: Applicants applying solely for grant for undertaking Branding &
Marketing activities abroad.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.