02 MARCH CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Food
Security Act (NFSA), 2013

1. It provides a legal right to persons belonging to eligible households to receive food grains at subsidised price, called central issue prices (CIPs).
2. These subsidised prices were fixed for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
• Provides a legal right: To persons belonging to eligible households to receive food grains at subsidised price – rice at Rs 3/kg, wheat at Rs 2/kg and coarse grain at Rs 1/kg, under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
o These are called central issue prices (CIPs).
• Eligible households: Under the Act, the term eligible households comprises two categories – priority households and families covered by the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).
o Priority households are entitled to receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month, whereas AAY households are entitled to 35 kg per month at the same prices.
o The Act has prescribed the coverage of 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population, which covers 81.35 crore persons (Census 2011) on all India basis. Need for revision:
• A revision of CIPs: Under the Act, these subsidised prices were fixed for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act. However, the government has yet not revised the subsidised prices.
o Even the Economic Survey of 2020-21 had recommended a revision in the CIPs.
• Updating the population coverage and beneficiary identification criteria: The Act contains a provision which deals with an update of coverage of population.
o The percentage coverage under the TPDS in rural and urban areas for each State shall be determined by the Central Government on the basis of the population estimates as per the census.
o The number of beneficiaries was frozen in 2013, however, given the population increase, there have been demands from the states and union territories to update the list.
o The NITI Aayog has suggested that the national rural and urban coverage ratio be reduced from the existing 75-50 to 60-40. This will require parliamentary approval.

Q2. Consider the following statements with respect to the Paris Agreement, that was signed in 2016

1. The agreement’s language was negotiated at the 21st Conference of the Parties (COP21) of the UNFCCC in Paris, France, and adopted by consensus in 2015.
2. All the members of the UNFCCC are parties to the agreement.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Paris Agreement:
• It is an agreement (signed in 2016) within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), on climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance.
o UNFCCC is a convention held in 1992 to combat climate change.
o Kyoto Protocol (1997) was another major international commitment under UNFCCC.
• The agreement’s language was negotiated by representatives of 196 state parties at the 21st Conference of the Parties (COP21) of the UNFCCC (Paris, France) and adopted by consensus on 12 December 2015.
o As of now, 191 members of the UNFCCC are parties to the agreement.
o Of the seven UNFCCC member states which have never ratified the agreement, the only major emitters are Iran, Turkey and Iraq. o The United States withdrew from the agreement in 2020, but accepted it again and officially rejoined it recently.
• The pact seeks to keep global temperature rise to below 2 degrees celsius from pre-industrial levels, and to try and limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
o For this, each country has pledged to implement targeted action plans (Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)) that will limit their greenhouse gas emissions.
• Under the agreement, rich and developed countries will provide financial and technological support to the developing world in their quest to fight and adapt to climate change.

Q3. The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26), is is scheduled to be held in a) Madrid, Spain
b) Ankara, Turkey
c) Pretoria, South Africa
d) Glasgow, Scotland.

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference, also known as COP26, is the 26th United Nations Climate Change conference. It is scheduled to be held in Glasgow, Scotland, from 1 to 12 November 2021 under the presidency of the United Kingdom.

Q4. Consider the following statements about Jan Aushadhi Medical Store, outlets established under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana

1. Over-the-counter (OTC) products from these stores can not be purchased by any individual without a prescription.
2. Individual entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for new Jan Aushadhi stores.
3. Swasth ke Sipahi are the pharmacists of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendra delivering essential services and medicines at doorstep of patients and elderly to fight COVID-19 outbreak.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 1 and 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) All of the above

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Popularly known as Swasth ke Sipahi, the pharmacists of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendra , are delivering essential services and medicines at doorstep of patients and elderly under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) of the Government of India to fight COVID-19 outbreak.
About Jan Aushadhi Store (JAS)
• JAS has been opened across the country.
• All therapeutic medicines are made available from Jan Aushadhi
Stores.
• In addition to medicines and surgical items supplied by BPPI, Jan Aushadhi stores also sell allied medical products commonly sold in chemist shops.
• OTC (Over-the-counter) products can be purchased by any individual without a prescription.
• A prescription from a registered medical practitioner is necessary for the purchase of scheduled drugs.
Who can open a Jan Aushadhi store?
• State Governments or any organization / reputed NGOs / Trusts / Private hospitals / Charitable institutions / Doctors / Unemployed pharmacists/ individual entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for new Jan Aushadhi stores.
• The applicants shall have to employ one B Pharma / D Pharma degree holder as Pharmacist in their proposed store.
About the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP):
• Launched by: It was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers, in 2008 under the name Jan Aushadhi Campaign. o Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP.
BPPI (Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India) has been established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Govt. of India, with the support of all the CPSUs for coordinating procurement, supply and marketing of generic drugs through the Jan Aushadhi Stores.
• Objective: Making quality medicines available at affordable prices for all, particularly the poor and disadvantaged, through exclusive outlets “Jan Aushadhi Medical Store”, so as to reduce out of pocket expenses in healthcare.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 145 of the Indian Constitution provides power to the Supreme Court to frame its own rules to regulate the practice and procedure of the Court.
2. The ‘Master of Roster’ refers to the administrative power of the Chief Justice of India only, to allocate the matters that other judges shall be hearing.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Master of roster
• ‘Roster’ as ‘a list of people’s names and the jobs they have to do at a particular time.’ Thus, ‘Master of Roster’ becomes ‘A man who decides such list.’
• In the Indian legal context, the ‘Master of Roster’ refers to the administrative power of the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justices of the High Courts to allocate the matters that other judges shall be hearing, respectively.
• Article 145 of the Indian Constitution provides power to the Supreme Court to frame its own rules to regulate the practice and procedure of the Court.

Q6. Consider the following statements about the ‘Make in India’ scheme:

1. It aims to increase the manufacturing sector’s growth rate to 12-14% per annum in order to increase the sector’s share in the economy;
2. It aims to ensure that the manufacturing sector’s contribution to GDP is increased to 25% by 2025 from the current 20%.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Only statement 1 is correct.
Make in India
In 2014, the Indian government launched the ‘Make in India Initiative’ in order to give thrust to the manufacturing sector’s growth rate to 12-14 per cent per annum.
What is Make in India (Beginning of Indigenous Manufacturing):
• ‘Make in India’ is a major national initiative that focuses on making India a global manufacturing hub.
• It is being led by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• The policy approach was to create a conducive environment for investments, develop modern and efficient infrastructure, and open up new sectors for foreign capital.
The three major objectives were:
• To increase the manufacturing sector’s growth rate to 12-14% per annum in order to increase the sector’s share in the economy;
• To create 100 million additional manufacturing jobs in the economy by 2022
• To ensure that the manufacturing sector’s contribution to GDP is increased to 25% by 2022 (revised to 2025) from the current 16%.
Key Thrust of the Programme: Key thrust of the programme is oriented on Cutting down in delays in manufacturing projects clearance and also develop adequate infrastructure to make it easier for companies to do business in India.
Key Sectors under the Programme: The focus of Make in India programme is on 25 sectors. These include automobiles, aviation, chemicals, IT & BPM, pharmaceuticals, construction, defence manufacturing, etc.

Q7. The term ‘Generalised System of Preferences (GSP) program’ is mentioned in the context of: a) Tariff rates
b) Banking sector
c) Defence priorities
d) None of the above

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is an umbrella that comprises the bulk of preferential schemes granted by industrialized nations to developing countries.
• It involves reduced Most Favored Nations (MFN) Tariffs or duty-free entry of eligible products exported by beneficiary countries to the markets of donor countries.

Q8. SRISTI & BIRAC are government initiatives in the field of a) Space technology
b) Bio technology
c) Women empowerment
d) Defence technology

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)
• It is a not-for-profit Section 8, Schedule B, Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product development needs.
BIRAC’s aim is to play a transformative and catalytic role in building a US$ 100 billion Indian bioeconomy.
SRISTI (Society for Research and Initiatives for Sustainable Technologies and Institutions), provides institutional support to the activities of the Honey Bee Network.
SRISTI has added the GYTI platform to encourage innovations for grassroots and other sectors of India to encourage technologies that are frugal and on verge of technological breakthrough.

Q9. With reference to the “Sugamya Bharat App”, consider the following statements:

1. The App has been developed by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. It is a Crowdsourcing Mobile Application is a means for sensitising and enhancing accessibility in the 3 pillars of the Accessible India Campaign i.e.
   built environment, transportation sector and ICT ecosystem in India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Union Minister for Social justice and Empowerment will virtually launch “Sugamya Bharat App”
• The App has been developed by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Sugamya Bharat APP — a Crowdsourcing Mobile Application is a means for sensitising and enhancing accessibility in the 3 pillars of the Accessible India Campaign i.e. built environment, transportation sector and ICT ecosystem in India.
• The app provides for five main features, 4 of which are directly related to enhancing accessibility, while the fifth is a special feature meant only for Divyangjan for COVID related issues.
• The accessibility related features are: the registration of complaints of inaccessibility across the 3 broad pillars of the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyaan; positive feedback of examples and best practices worth emulating being shared by people as jan-bhagidhari; Departmental updates; and guidelines and circulars related to accessibility.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q10. With reference to the “Swachhta Saarthi Fellowship”, consider the following statements:

1. The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India under its “Waste to Wealth” Mission launched the “Swachhta Saarthi Fellowship”.
2. The Waste to Wealth Mission is one of the nine national missions of the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC).
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India under its “Waste to Wealth” Mission launched the “Swachhta Saarthi Fellowship”
• Aim of the fellowship to recognize students, community workers/self-help groups, and municipal/sanitary workers who are engaged in tackling the enormous challenge of waste management, scientifically and sustainably.
• The Waste to Wealth Mission is one of the nine national missions of the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC). • The three categories of awards under the fellowships are as below:
o Category-A – Open to School students from 9th to 12th standards engaged in waste management community work
o Category-B – Open to College students (UG, PG, Research students) engaged in waste management community work
o Category-C – Open to Citizens working in the community and through SHGs, municipal or sanitary workers working beyond specifications of their job requirement/descriptions
• The last date for applying to the fellowship is March 19th, 2021. Up to 500 fellows will be recognised under the fellowship. • Hence both statements are correct.