19- 21 DEC CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)

1. It is an area development scheme of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, government of India and backward Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs) has been identified for the implementation of this scheme.
2. It is a central sector scheme for creating socio-economic infrastructure as well as basic amenities for uplifting the quality of life of minorities in the MCAs. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK):-
• It is an area development scheme of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, government of India.
• The Ministry has identified 1300 backward Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs) for the implementation of this scheme.
• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for creating socio-economic infrastructure as well as basic amenities for uplifting the quality of life of minorities in the MCAs.
• The amenities are meant for all segments of the society including minorities.
• The thrust of the Scheme is to allocate at least 80% of the resources for education, health and skill development, out of which 33-40% are to be specifically allocated for women centric projects. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q2. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature & natural resources in various countries. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
   a) All of the above
   b) 2 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 3 only

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
IUCN publishes a Red data book which contains a list of ‘Threatened species’ (vulnerable, endangered and critically endangered). Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 356 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to withdraw from the Union the executive and legislative powers of any state in case of constitutional breakdown.
2. The determination of the breakdown of constitutional machinery may be done by the President at any time, either upon receipt of a report from the Governor, or the High Court.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a) Explanation :-
President’s rule:
• Article 356 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to withdraw from the Union the executive and legislative powers of any state “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
• The determination of the breakdown of constitutional machinery may be done by the President at any time, either upon receipt of a report from the Governor, or suo motu.
• If approved by both the houses, the President’s Rule, as it is most-commonly called, can continue for 6 months. It can be extended for a maximum of 3 months with the approval of the Parliament. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. India’s energy mix is dominated by coal and oil.
2. The share of natural gas is 10%.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Natural gas usage in India
• The share of natural gas was only 6.2%. Indian energy imports comprise of 84% crude and 45% gas.
• India’s energy mix is dominated by coal and oil, which accounted for 57% and 30% respectively of total primary energy supply (TPES) in 2016. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q5. Consider the following pairs

Indigenous games Belongs to (States)

1. Kalaripayattu A. Tamil Nadu
2. Malakhamba B. Madhya Pradesh
3. Gatka C. Punjab
4. Thang ta D. Mizoram
   Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?
   a) 3 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 4 only
   d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About these games: Refer Pdf. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to the Information Management and
Analysis Centre (IMAC)

1. Approved by the Defence Acquisition Council, IMAC became operational in 2018.
2. It is a joint initiative of Indian Navy, Coast Guard and Bharat Electronics Ltd. and functions under the National Security Adviser (NSA).
3. The IMAC tracks vessels on the high seas and gets data from the coastal radars, improving transparency on maritime traffic on the high seas.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 2 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) All of the above

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About the IMAC:
• Operational in 2014: The IMAC was approved by the Defence Acquisition Council in 2012 and became operational in 2014 at a cost of ₹450 crore, and is located in Gurugram.
• A joint initiative: Of Indian Navy, Coast Guard and Bharat Electronics Ltd. and functions under the National Security Adviser (NSA).
• A nodal centre: Of the National Command Control Communication and Intelligence System (NC3I), which was established to link the operational Centres and lower echelons of the Navy and the Coast Guard spread across the country’s coastline.
o The Indian Navy has established the NC3IN linking 51 stations, including 20 of the Navy and 31 of the Coast Guard, with a nodal Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC).
• Functions: The IMAC tracks vessels on the high seas and gets data from the coastal radars, white shipping agreements, Automatic Identification Systems (AIS) transponders fitted on merchant ships, air and traffic management systems and global shipping databases.
o After the 26/11 terror attack, all fishing vessels more than 20m long were mandated to have AIS transponders installed.
Significance: Improving maritime domain awareness in the Indian Ocean, enabling mutual collaboration and understanding of the threats prevalent in the region. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q7. The Dhebar Commission is related to:
a) Primitive Tribal Groups
b) Center-state relations
c) Scheduled caste
d) Banking

Solution : a)
Explanation :-

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
The tribal population in India makes up for 8.6% of the total population inhabiting around 15 % of the geographical area.
• PVTGs are those groups of tribes which are more vulnerable among the tribal groups.
• The Dhebar Commission in 1973, created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.
• The Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs in 2006.
• PVTGs have some basic characteristics – o they are mostly homogenous, o with a small population, o relatively physically isolated, o social institutes cast in a simple mould, o absence of written language, o relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the APMC Act, a state is divided into a single market area.
2. APMC Acts provide that first sale in the notified agricultural commodities produced in the region such as chicken, goat, etc. can be conducted only under the aegis of the APMC
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)
• Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a statutory market committee constituted by a State Government in respect of trade in certain notified agricultural or horticultural or livestock products, under the Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act issued by that state government.
• The first sale of agriculture produce can occur only at the market yards (mandis) of APMC.
APMC ACT
• Under the APMC Act, agricultural produce market committees (APMC) were formed that are responsible for the operation of the markets.
• Under this act, a state is divided into several market areas and each market area is managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Government.
• APMC Acts provide that first sale in the notified agricultural commodities produced in the region such as cereals, pulses, edible oilseed, fruits and vegetables and even chicken, goat, sheep, sugar, fish etc. can be conducted only under the aegis of the APMC, through its licensed commission agents, and subject to the payment of various taxes and fees.
• The producers of agricultural products are thus forced to do their first sale in these markets.
• Then onwards, the area will be managed and regulated by an APMC and no agency or person will be allowed to carry on wholesale marketing without permission.
• The act created a monopoly of the APMC in the market area. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Sentinelese Tribe

1. They are tribals with a population of about 50 to 100 on the North Sentinel Island 2. Their population is just 74 individuals, and they speak Jeru among themselves. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
About Sentinelese Tribe
• They are tribals with a population of about 50 to 100 on the North Sentinel Island.
• They are not only among the most isolated of nearly 70 PVTGs across the country, but also among the five in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
About Great Andamanese tribe
• The Great Andamanese are one of five PVTGs that reside in the Andamans archipelago.
• Their population is just 74 individuals, and they speak Jeru among themselves.
• The five PVTGs residing in Andamans :
o Great Andamanese, Jarawas, Onges, Shompens and North Sentinelese.
o The Shompen and North Sentinelese, live in isolation, are difficult to reach out to and contact.
While in the case of the Sentinelese their contact to the outside world is almost nil, the Great Andamanese had decades of exposure to the world outside their Island. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q10. Consider the following statements about Objectives of the National Rail Plan

1. Net Zero Carbon emission by 2030
2. Reduce transit time of freight
3. Reduce overall cost of Rail transportation
4. Identify infrastructural bottlenecks Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1, 2 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Objectives of the Plan:
• To create capacity ahead of demand by 2030.
• Net Zero Carbon emission by 2030, as part of a national commitment to reduce Carbon emission and to sustain it.
• Forecast growth of traffic in both freight and passenger year on year up to 2030 and on a decadal basis up to 2050.
• Formulate strategies based on both operational capacities and commercial policy initiatives to increase modal share of the Railways in freight to 45% by 2030.
• Reduce transit time of freight substantially by increasing average speed of freight trains from present 22Kmph to 50Kmph.
• Reduce overall cost of Rail transportation by nearly 30% and pass on the benefits to the customers.
• Identify infrastructural bottlenecks that would arise in future with growth in demand.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

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